(NEW DUMPS) Braindump2go Free Exam Symantec 250-254 Simulator (1-27)

Vendor: Symantec
Exam Code: 250-254
Exam Name: Symantec Cluster Server 6.1 for UNIX Technical Assessment

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.

The exhibit shows an N-to-1 cluster configuration, in which nodes are connected to storage devices via dual-hosted SCSI cables.
Why is this an inefficient configuration?

A.    Storage should be shared by more than two nodes.
B.    Clusters should have at most two nodes.
C.    NAS is preferred over SAN for shared storage.
D.    NFS is the preferred way to share storage within a cluster.

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
What does Network Monitor use to identify network traffic going to a nonstandard port?

A.    The originating domain
B.    Total packet size
C.    Either UDP or TCP
D.    Protocol signature

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
While Veritas Cluster Server supports nodes in a cluster using different hardware or operating system versions, this is potentially undesirable for which two reasons? (Select two.)

A.    User security
B.    Inability to handle load on failover
C.    Cluster upgrades
D.    Operational complexity
E.    Network connectivity

Answer: BD

QUESTION 4
What are two operating systems supported by Veritas Cluster Server? (Select two.)

A.    Fedora
B.    Red Hat Enterprise Server
C.    openSuSe
D.    Mac OS
E.    AIX

Answer: BE

QUESTION 5
What is a characteristic of the web-based installer?

A.    It can be automated with a response file.
B.    It can be run using Internet Explorer, Firefox, or Safari.
C.    It can install on multiple operating systems at the same time.
D.    It runs the same commands as the command line installer.

Answer: D

QUESTION 6
What is a feature of keyless licensing?

A.    It works on all versions of Veritas Cluster Server.
B.    It requires an accessible Veritas Operations Manager (VOM) server.
C.    It requires that at least one key be installed on each cluster host.
D.    It must be enabled before installation of Veritas Cluster Server.

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Symantec Operation Readiness Tools (SORT) provides which service?

A.    It automates installation of product updates.
B.    It manages notifications for changes in patches.
C.    It stores operating system patches required for upgrade.
D.    It maintains common config files required for Disaster Recovery.

Answer: B

QUESTION 8
When run in a two node cluster, what does the lltstat -nvv command show?

A.    only LLT information for the node the command was run on
B.    LLT information for all configured nodes in the cluster
C.    LLT information for any cluster nodes attached to the same switch
D.    only LLT information for nodes verified by Veritas Cluster Server to be active

Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which roles configuration tab is used to set the custom attributes that a certain role can view or edit?

A.    General tab
B.    Incident Access tab
C.    Policy Management tab
D.    Users tab

Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which component is directly responsible for communicating online configuration changes to all nodes in the cluster?

A.    LLT
B.    IMF
C.    GAB
D.    HAD

Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Discover Servers can leave Marker Files for files moved to the quarantine location.
Which file types retain their file extension and the corresponding icon in the Marker File?

A.    All file types configured in Windows Explorer on the detection server host
B.    Text files, including source code in Java, C, and shell script
C.    Microsoft Office documents
D.    File types specified in the ProtectRemediation.properties file

Answer: D

QUESTION 12
What is required in order to have two separate Veritas clusters share a common private heartbeat network switch?

A.    GAB network IDs must be unique across the clusters.
B.    All node IDs must be unique across the clusters.
C.    Cluster IDs must be unique across the clusters.
D.    All LLT node IDs must be unique across the clusters.

Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which two are characteristics of a Veritas Cluster Server resource? (Select two.)

A.    Corresponds to a hardware or software component
B.    Allows cyclical dependencies without a clear starting point
C.    Allows only persistent resources to be a parent
D.    Has a unique name throughout the cluster
E.    Has a single entry point that the agent uses to control the resource

Answer: AD

QUESTION 14
Which detection method includes keyword rules?

A.    Exact Data Matching (EDM)
B.    Directory Group Matching (DGM)
C.    Described Content Matching (DCM)
D.    Indexed Document Matching (IDM)

Answer: C

QUESTION 15
What information must be specified when adding a resource to a service group?

A.    Cluster identifier
B.    System name
C.    Attribute values
D.    Service group name

Answer: D

QUESTION 16
What are two requirements for configuring disk-based I/O fencing on supported storage arrays? (Select two.)

A.    Cluster File System Option enabled
B.    Arrays with SCSI3-PR enabled
C.    A minimum of two private heartbeat connections
D.    LUNs visible within the vxdisk list output
E.    LUNs validated with the hacf -verify command

Answer: BD

QUESTION 17
Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) includes a disk-based I/O fencing mechanism.
Thinking specifically about data disks, which two cluster configuration requirements must be met to implement this? (Select two.)

A.    The application using the disks must be managed by a VCS Application resource type.
B.    The disks must be in a Veritas Volume Manager disk group.
C.    The service group containing the disks must include an IP resource.
D.    The disks must be managed by a VCS DiskGroup resource type.
E.    The disks must contain at least one *.dbf file.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 18
An administrator is responsible for a cluster split between two data centers in different locations. The data is mirrored between the two sites.
If the administrator would like to set up I/O fencing, how should the configuration be deployed to maximize resilience?

A.    One SCSI-3 coordinator disk at the primary site, one coordinator disk at the secondary site, and a Coordination Point Server at a third site
B.    Two SCSI-3 coordinator disks at the primary site and one coordinator disk at the secondary site
C.    One SCSI-3 coordinator disk at the primary site and two coordinator disks at the secondary site
D.    One Coordination Point Server at the primary site, and one Coordination Point Server at the secondary site, and one Coordination Point Server at a third site

Answer: A

QUESTION 19
An employee received the following email notification:
******************************************************************************************************* *****************
Dear Bob,
Your email to [email protected] with subject Account Info you requested violates the company’s Customer Data Protection policy.
If this is a legitimate business email, please add the word Encrypt in the subject line of the email. The communication will then be automatically sent to the recipient in an encrypted form, in accordance with company policy.
Please note that this violation has also been reported to your manager. Confidential data protection is every employee’s responsibility.
Thank you,
Corporate Information Security Team
******************************************************************************************************* *****************
Which recommended item is missing from this email notification?

A.    A contact person
B.    The severity of the violation
C.    The affected business unit
D.    The name of the file that caused the violation

Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Only two local disks suitable for use as coordinator disks are available for a local muti-node cluster.
Adding a Coordination Point (CP) Server with which two properties would maximize the resiliency of the I/O fencing configuration? (Select two.)

A.    One-node CP server cluster with GAB and LLT configured
B.    One-node CP server cluster with only LLT configured
C.    Second network connection to the CP server cluster
D.    Multi-node CP server cluster
E.    I/O fencing on the CP server cluster

Answer: CD

QUESTION 21
To which file system folder does PacketCapture write reconstructed SMTP messages?

A.    drop
B.    drop_pcap
C.    drop_discover
D.    drop_ttd

Answer: B

QUESTION 22
How is a policy applied to files found in Network Discover scans?

A.    By assigning policy groups to the scan target
B.    By choosing the correct policies in the scan target
C.    By assigning policies to the Network Discover Server
D.    By choosing the correct detection servers to run the scans

Answer: A

QUESTION 23
How can an incident responder remediate multiple incidents simultaneously?

A.    By selecting a Smart Response on the Incident Snapshot page
B.    By selecting an Automated Response on an Incident List report
C.    By selecting a Smart Response on an Incident List report
D.    By selecting the Find Similar command on the Incident Snapshot page

Answer: C

QUESTION 24
Which Network Protect feature is a system administrator unable to configure?

A.    Ability to copy files
B.    Ability to restore files
C.    Location of quarantined files
D.    Content of the file marker

Answer: B

QUESTION 25
Which Storage Foundation feature is used to send data changes to a remote site via an IP network?

A.    Volume Replicator
B.    Storage Replicator
C.    NetBackup
D.    Replication Exec

Answer: C

QUESTION 26
What is a characteristic of an application that is to be clustered with Veritas Cluster Server?

A.    It must have the ability to be monitored.
B.    It must have the ability to store all required data and configuration information on shared disks.
C.    It must have the ability to store all required data on SATA disks.
D.    It must have the ability to copy configuration information between cluster nodes.

Answer: A

QUESTION 27
Which two capabilities must an application have in order to be made highly available using Veritas Cluster Server? (Select two.)

A.    The ability to monitor each instance of the application independently
B.    The ability to be installed on shared storage
C.    The ability to determine if the application is running
D.    The ability to notify the administrator of the state
E.    The ability to disconnect users from the application

Answer: AC

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