Official 2014 Latest Microsoft 70-680 Exam Dump Free Download(31-40)

QUESTION 31
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 7. Computer1 is a member of an Active Directory domain. Remote Desktop is enabled on the computer. You share a folder on Computer1. You need to configure Computer1 to meet the following requirements:
– Allow computers in the local subnet to access the shared folder.
– Prevent computers in remote subnets from accessing the shared folder.
– Allow all computers to connect to Computer1 by using Remote Desktop.
What should you do?

A.    Modify the subnet mask.
B.    Modify the Public folder sharing settings.
C.    Disable network discovery on all computers located in remote subnets.
D.    Modify the properties of the File and Printer Sharing firewall exceptions.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Network ProfilesNetwork profiles are important because you can use them to apply different collections of firewall rules based on which network profile is active. A significant difference between Windows Vista and Windows 7 is that in Windows 7, profiles apply on a per-network interface basis. This means that if you have one network adapter connected to the Internet and another connected to your office LAN, different sets of rules apply for each connection. The firewall in Windows Vista chooses the most restrictive network profile when a computer has connections to different network types and applies the most restrictive set of rules to all interfaces.Allowing Programs Through Windows FirewallWindows Firewall allows you to configure exceptions based on programs. This differs from Windows Vista where Windows Firewall would allow you to configure exceptions based on port address. You can still create rules based on port address; you just have to do it using WFAS, covered later in this lesson. You can also allow specific Windows 7 features, such as Windows Virtual PC, through Windows Firewall. Feature rules become available when you enable the feature using the Programs And Features item in Control Panel. To add a rule for a feature or program, click Allow A Program Or Feature Through Windows Firewall item in the Windows Firewall section of Control Panel. The figure shows a list of currently installed features and any programs for which rules have been created as well as the profiles for which rules concerning those programs and features are enabled.File and Printer Sharing
This feature is used for sharing local files and printers with other users on the network.
(Uses NetBIOS, LLMNR, SMB and RPC)
 clip_image002[4]

QUESTION 32
You have a computer that runs Windows 7.
You attempt to add files to %programfiles%\app1 and receive a prompt to elevate your privileges. You need to ensure that you can add files to %programfiles%\app1 without receiving a prompt for elevated privileges.
The solution must prevent harmful applications from making unwanted changes to the system. What should you do?

A.    Enable the built-in administrator account.
B.    Modify the User Account Control (UAC) settings.
C.    Add your user account to the local Power Users group.
D.    Modify the permissions of the %programfiles%\app1 folder.

Answer: D
Explanation:
In order to secure a computer and its resources, you must consider the rights that users will have. You can secure a computer or multiple computers by granting users or groups specific user rights. You can help secure an object, such as a file or folder, by assigning permissions to allow users or groups to perform specific actions on that object.

QUESTION 33
You have a computer that runs Windows 7.
You configure the computer to automatically install all updates.
You need to verify whether a specific update is installed. What should you do?

A.    In event viewer, examine the application log.
B.    In windows update, examine the update history.
C.    At the command prompt, run Wusa.exe and specify the /kb parameter.
D.    At the command prompt, run Verifier.exe and specify the /query parameter.

Answer: B

QUESTION 34
You have a computer that runs Windows 7.
You need to identify which hardware is required to create a system repair disc.
What hardware should you identify?

A.    CD/DVD burner
B.    Floppy disk
C.    Tape drive
D.    USB disk

Answer: A

QUESTION 35
You have a computer that runs Windows 7.
You manually create a system restore point.
You need to restore a copy of a file stored on a drive C from two days ago.
You must act with minimum administrative effort.
What should you do?

A.    From recovery, select System Restore.
B.    From Backup and restore, select Restore my files.
C.    From the command prompt, run Wbadmin get items.
D.    From the properties of the file, select Previous Versions.

Answer: D
Explanation:
How do I view or restore previous versions of a file and folder? Right-click the file or folder, and then click Restore previous versions. You’ll see a list of available previous versions of the file or folder. The list will include files saved on a backup (if you’re using Windows Backup to back up your files) as well as restore points. To restore a previous version of a file or folder that’s included in a library, right-click the file or folder in the location where it’s saved, rather than in the library. For example, to restore a previous version of a picture that’s included in the Pictures library but is stored in the My Pictures folder, right-click the My Pictures folder, and then click Restore previous versions. For more information about libraries, see Include folders in a library.
 clip_image001
The Previous Versions tab, showing some previous versions of files
NOT System Restore: System Restore restores system files and settings and does not affect any of your documents, pictures, or other personal data.
NOT Backup and Restore: System restore point was created, no backup meantioned.NOT Wbadmin:
The Backup And Restore console does not provide a graphical tool for scheduling System Image backups. You need to create a System Image backup manually from the Backup
And Restore console whenever you have made significant changes to a computer’s configuration. Take care that if you restore a System Image backup and boot from it, or if you make the VHD bootable for failover protection, your computer could be vulnerable unless the System Image includes security updates. Although you cannot use Backup And Restore to schedule System Image backups, you can use the Wbadmin command-line utility to perform this function. For example, to initiate a System Image backup of the C: drive to the H: drive, you run the following command from an elevated command prompt:
wbadmin start backup -backuptarget:h: -include:c: -quiet

QUESTION 36
You have a computer that runs Windows Vista. The computer has one partition and 1 GB of RAM. You need to upgrade the computer to Windows 7. What should you do?

A.    Add 1 GB of RAM.
B.    Create a second partition.
C.    Disable User Account Control (UAC).
D.    Install Windows Vista Service pack 2 (SP2).

Answer: D
Explanation:
You should keep the following in mind prior to and during the upgrade from Windows Vista to Windows 7:
– Perform a full backup of the computer running Windows Vista prior to performing the installation. – That way, if things go wrong, you can do a full restore back to Windows Vista. You must ensure that Windows Vista has Service Pack 1 or later installed before you can upgrade it to Windows 7. – Ensure that you have the Windows 7 product key prior to the upgrade. – You cannot upgrade between processor architectures. An x86 version of Windows Vista cannot be upgraded to an x64 version of Windows 7, and vice versa. – You can upgrade only to an equivalent or higher edition of Windows 7. – You can upgrade Windows Vista Home Premium to Windows 7 Home Premium, Professional, Enterprise, or Ultimate, but not to Windows 7 Starter. Windows 7 Professional is equivalent to Windows Vista Business. – Ensure that there is at least 10 GB of free disk space on the Windows Vista volume prior to attempting the upgrade.Requirements:Windows 7 Home Premium, Professional, Ultimate, and Enterprise editions have the following minimum hardware requirements:
– 1 GHz 32-bit (x86) or 64-bit (x64) processor
– 1 GB of system memory- A 40-GB hard disk drive (traditional or SSD) with at least 15 GB of available space
– A graphics adapter that supports DirectX 9 graphics, has a Windows Display Driver Model (WDDM) driver, Pixel Shader 2.0 hardware, and 32 bits per pixel and a minimum of 128 MB graphics memory

QUESTION 37
You have a computer that runs Windows 7. The computer is configured as shown in the following table:
 clip_image001[6]
You plan to install a new application that requires 40 GB of space. The application will be installed to C:\app1.
You need to provide 40 GB of free space for the application. What should you do?

A.    Create a shortcut.
B.    Create hard link.
C.    Create a mount point.
D.    Change the quota settings.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Assign a mount point folder path to a driveYou can use Disk Management to assign a mount-point folder path (rather than a drive letter) to the drive. Mount-point folder paths are available only on empty folders on basic or dynamic NTFS volumes.Volume Mount PointsVolume mount points are new system objects in the internal namespace of Windows 2000 that represent storage volumes in a persistent, robust manner. This feature allows multiple disk volumes to be linked into a single tree, similar to the way Dfs links remote network shares. You can have many disk volumes linked together, with only a single drive letter pointing to the root volume. The combination of an NTFS junction and a Windows 2000 volume mount point can be used to graft multiple volumes into the namespace of a host NTFS volume. Windows 2000 offers this new mounting feature as an alternative to drive letters so system administrators can transcend the 26-drive letter limit that exists in Windows NT. Volume mount points are robust against system changes that occur when devices are added or removed from a computer. Important-icon Important A volume is a self-contained unit of storage administered by a file system. The file system that administers the storage in a volume defines a namespace for the volume. A volume mount point is a directory name in an NTFS file system that denotes the root of an arbitrary volume. A volume mount point can be placed in any empty directory of the namespace of the containing NTFS volume. Because volumes can be denoted by arbitrary directory names, they are not required to have a traditional drive letter. Placing a volume mount point on an NTFS directory causes the storage subsystem to resolve the directory to a specified local volume. This “mounting” is done transparently and does not require a drive letter to represent the volume. A Windows 2000 mount point always resolves to the root directory of the desired volume. Volume mount points require that the version of NTFS included with Windows 2000 be used because they are based on NTFS reparse points.

QUESTION 38
You have a computer that runs Windows 7.
You log on to the computer by using a user account that is a member of Administrator Group. From Windows Explorer you open C:\windows\system32\drivers\etc\hosts in notepad. You attempt to save the file and receive the save as dialog box.
You need to ensure that you can save changes to c:\windows\system32\drivers\.
What should you do?

A.    Stop the windows search service.
B.    Remove the inherited permissions from the file.
C.    Start Windows Notepad by using elevated privileges.
D.    Change the user account control (UAS) settings to Notify Me Only when programs try to make changes
to my computer.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Windows 7 does not allow applications to write data to these secure locations. User Account Control (UAC)UAC is a security feature of Windows 7 that informs you when the action that you want to undertake requires an elevation of privileges. If you logged on with a user account that was a member of the local administrators group in previous versions of Microsoft Windows, such as Windows XP, you automatically had administrator- level access at all times. This, by itself, was not a problem because recommended good practice was that people logged on with accounts that were members of the local administrator group only when they needed to do something related to administration. The problem with this is that people tended to use their administrator account as their normal user account. It was convenient for them because they did not have to log off and log on again each time they wanted to do something related to systems administration. Unfortunately, this behavior presented a security problem because any program run by a user logged on with an administrative account runs with the rights and privileges of that user. UAC resolves this problem by allowing a user that is a member of the local Administrators group to run as a standard user most of the time and to briefly elevate their privileges so that they are running as administrators when they attempt to carry out specific administration-related tasks.Privilege elevationAll users of clients running Windows 7 run with the rights of a standard user. When a user attempts an act that requires administrative privileges, such as creating a new user account, her rights need to be raised from those of a standard user to those of an administrative user. This increase in rights is termed privilege elevation. UAC is a gateway to privilege elevation. It allows users who are members of the local Administrators group to access administrative rights, but ensures that the person accessing the Administrative rights is aware that they are doing so. This privilege elevation occurs only for a specific task. Another task executed at the same time that also requires privilege elevation generates its own UAC

QUESTION 39
You have a computer that runs Windows 7.
The network contains a monitoring server named server1. The computer runs a monitoring service named Service1. Service1 uses Remote Procedure Calls (RPCs).
You need to ensure that Service1 can receive requests from Server1.
What should you do?

A.    From windows Firewall with Advanced Security, create a predefined rule.
B.    From windows Firewall with Advanced Security, create a custom rule.
C.    From the Network and Sharing Center, modify the network location settings.
D.    From the Network and Sharing Center, modify the advanced sharing settings.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Creating WFAS Rules
The process for configuring inbound rules and outbound rules is essentially the same: In the WFAS console, select the node that represents the type of rule that you want to create and then click New Rule. This opens the New Inbound (or Outbound) Rule Wizard. The first page, allows you to specify the type of rule that you are going to create. You can select between a program, port, predefined, or custom rule. The program and predefined rules are similar to what you can create using Windows Firewall. A custom rule allows you to configure a rule based on criteria not covered by any of the other options. You would create a custom rule if you wanted a rule that applied to a particular service rather than a program or port. You can also use a custom rule if you want to create a rule that involves both a specific program and a set of ports. For example, if you wanted to allow communication to a specific program on a certain port but not other ports, you would create a custom rule.

QUESTION 40
You have a customized image of Windows 7 Professional. You mount the image and modify the contents of the image. You need to restore the image to its original state. Which tool should you use?

A.    Dism.exe
B.    Ocsetup.exe
C.    Pkgmgr.exe
D.    Sysprep.exe

Answer: A
Explanation:
Dism
Deployment Image Servicing and Management (DISM) is a command-line tool used to service Windows images offline before deployment. You can use it to install, uninstall, configure, and update Windows features, packages, drivers, and international settings. Subsets of the DISM servicing commands are also available for servicing a running operating system.
Windows 7 introduces the DISM command-line tool. You can use DISM to service a Windows image or to prepare a Windows PE image. DISM replaces Package Manager (Pkgmgr.exe), PEimg, and Intlcfg in Windows Vista, and includes new features to improve the experience for offline servicing.
You can use DISM to perform the following actions:
* Prepare a Windows PE image.
* Enable or disable Windows features within an image.
* Upgrade a Windows image to a different edition.
* Add, remove, and enumerate packages.
* Add, remove, and enumerate drivers.
* Apply changes based on the offline servicing section of an unattended answer file.
* Configure international settings.
* Implement powerful logging features.
* Service operating systems such as Windows Vista with SP1 and Windows Server 2008.
* Service a 32-bit image from a 64-bit host and service a 64-bit image from a 32-bit host.
* Service all platforms (32-bit, 64-bit, and Itanium).
* Use existing Package Manager scripts.
DISM Command-Line Options
To service a Windows image offline, you must apply or mount it. WIM images can be mounted using the WIM commands within DISM, or applied and then recaptured using ImageX. You can also use the WIM commands to list the indexes or verify the architecture for the image you are mounting. After you update the image, you must dismount it and then either commit or discard the changes you have made.
NOT Sysprep
Sysprep is a tool designed for corporate system administrators, OEMs, and others who need to deploy the Windows XP operating system on multiple computers. After performing the initial setup steps on a single system, you can run Sysprep to prepare the sample computer for cloning.
Sysprep prepares the image for capture by cleaning up various user-specific and omputerspecific settings, as well as log files. The reference installation now is complete and ready to be imaged.

Passing Microsoft 70-680 Exam successfully in a short time! Just using Braindump2go’s Latest Microsoft 70-680 Dump:
http://www.braindump2go.com/70-680.html

Official 2014 Latest Microsoft 70-680 Exam Dump Free Download(21-30)

QUESTION 21
You have two computers named Computer1 and Computer2 that run Windows 7. Both computers are members of an Active Directory domain. Windows Remote Management (WinRM) is
enabled on both computers.
You need to remotely create additional disk volumes on Computer1 from Computer2. What should you do?

A.    On Computer2, run Winrs and then run Diskpart.
B.    On Computer2, run Winrs and then run Diskmgmt.msc.
C.    On Computer1, install the Telnet Client and then run Diskpart from Computer2.
D.    On Computer1, install the Telnet Client and then use Disk Management from Computer2.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Winrs You can use WinRS to execute command-line utilities or scripts on a remote computer. To use WinRS, open a command prompt and prefix the command that you want to run on the remote computer with the WinRS -r: RemoteComputerName command. For example, to execute the Ipconfig command on a computer named Aberdeen, issue the command: WinRS -r:Aberdeen ipconfig The Windows Remote Management service allows you to execute commands on a remote computer, either from the command prompt using WinRS or from Windows PowerShell. Before you can use WinRS or Windows PowerShell for remote management tasks, it is necessary to configure the target computer using the WinRM command. To configure the target computer, you must run the command WinRM quickconfig from an elevated command prompt.
Diskpart: Microsoft command-line tool Diskpart is used to create and format volumes on the target computer.

QUESTION 22
A remote user has a computer that runs Windows 7. The user reports that he receives several error messages while using an application.
You do not have remote access to the user’s computer. You need to tell the user how to create
screenshots of the actions he performs on the computer. The solution must track the mouse actions that the user performs. What should you instruct the user to do?

A.    Press ALT + PrintScreen.
B.    Run Psr.exe and then click Start Record.
C.    From Mouse Properties, select Display pointer trails.
D.    Run Snippingtool.exe, click New, and then click Window Snip.

Answer: B
Explanation:
How do I use Problem Steps Recorder?You can use Problem Steps Recorder to automatically capture the steps you take on a computer, including a text description of where you clicked and a picture of the screen during each click (called a screen shot). Once you capture these steps, you can save them to a file that can be used by a support professional or someone else helping you with a computer problem.NotesWhen you record steps on your computer, anything you type will not be recorded. If what you type is an important part of recreating the problem you’re trying to solve, use the comment feature described below to highlight where the problem is occurring.

QUESTION 23
You have a computer that runs Windows 7. The computer’s disk is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
 clip_image002
You need to extend volume C.
What should you do first?

A.    Back up and delete volume D.
B.    Convert disk 0 to a dynamic disk.
C.    Remove the crash dump from volume C.
D.    Move the paging file from volume C to volume E.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Extend a Basic Volume
You can add more space to existing primary partitions and logical drives by extending them into adjacent unallocated space on the same disk. To extend a basic volume, it must be raw or formatted with the NTFS file system. You can extend a logical drive within contiguous free space in the extended partition that contains it. If you extend a logical drive beyond the free space available in the extended partition, the extended partition grows to contain the logical drive. For logical drives, boot, or system volumes, you can extend the volume only into contiguous space and only if the disk can be upgraded to a dynamic disk. For other volumes, you can extend the volume into noncontiguous space, but you will be prompted to convert the disk to dynamic.

QUESTION 24
You need to increase the size of a paging file. What should you do?

A.    From Disk Management, shrink the boot partition.
B.    From Disk Management, shrink the system partition.
C.    From System, modify the Advanced system settings.
D.    From System, modify the System protection settings.

Answer: C
Explanation:
1. Click Start, right-click My Computer, and then click Properties.
2. In the System Properties dialog box, click the Advanced tab.
3. In the Performance pane, click Settings.
4. In the Performance Options dialog box, click the Advanced tab.
5. In the Virtual memory pane, click Change.
6. Change the Initial size value and the Maximum size value to a higher value, click Set, and then click OK.
7. Click OK to close the Performance Options dialog box, and then click OK to close the System Properties dialog box.

QUESTION 25
You have a computer that runs Windows Vista (x86). You need to perform a clean installation of Windows 7 (64-bit). What should you do?

A.    From the Windows 7 installation media, run Rollback.exe.
B.    From the Windows 7 installation media, run Migsetup.exe.
C.    Start the computer from the Windows 7 installation media. From the Install Windows dialog box,
select the Upgrade option.
D.    Start the computer from the Windows 7 installation media. From the Install Windows dialog box,
select the Custom (advanced) option.

Answer: D
Explanation:
When you are performing a clean installation, you should select Custom (Advanced). Almost all installations ofm Windows 7 that you will perform will be of the Custom (Advanced) type rather than upgrades. You can initiate upgrade installations only from within Windows Vista or Windows 7.NOT Rollback, Migsetup, or Upgrade:Specified clean installation not migration, update or rollback.

QUESTION 26
Your network consists of a single Active Directory forest.
You have 50 portable computers and 50 desktop computers. All computers have 32-bit hardware. You plan to deploy Windows 7 and 10 corporate applications to the computers by using a custom image.
You need to prepare for the deployment by using the minimum amount of administrative effort. What should you do first?

A.    On one computer, install Windows 7 and the corporate applications.
B.    On one portable computer and one desktop computer, install Windows 7 and the corporate applications.
C.    On a server, install and run the Microsoft Assessment and Planning (MAP) Toolkit.
D.    On a server, install the Windows Automated Installation Kit (AIK) and run Windows System Image Manager
(Windows SIM).

Answer: A
Explanation:
To prepare the reference computer for the user, you use the Sysprep utility with the /generalize option to remove hardware-specific information from the Windows installation and the /oobe option to configure the computer to boot to Windows Welcome upon the next restart. Open an elevated command prompt on the reference computer and run the following command: c:\windows\system32\sysprep\sysprep.exe /oobe /generalize /shutdown.
Sysprep prepares the image for capture by cleaning up various user-specific and computerspecific settings, as well as log files. The reference installation now is complete and ready to be imaged.

QUESTION 27
You have a computer that runs Windows 7. You need to copy files to a virtual hard disk (VHD) file. What should you do first?

A.    Run Dism.exe and specify the /image and /online parameters.
B.    Open Windows Explorer, right-click the VHD file and select Open.
C.    Run Diskpart.exe and then run the select and attach commands.
D.    Run Imagex.exe and specify the /mountrw and /append parameters.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Diskpart Microsoft command-line tool Diskpart is used to create and format volumes on the target computer.SelectShift the focus to an object.AttachAttaches a virtual disk file.

QUESTION 28
You have a computer that runs Windows 7.
You create an application shim for a third-party application by using the Microsoft Application Compatibility Toolkit (ACT). You need to ensure that the application shim is applied the next time you run the application. What should you do first?

A.    Run Sdbinst.exe.
B.    Run Msiexec.exe.
C.    Right-click the application executable file and modify the compatibility settings.
D.    Right-click the application executable file and modify the advanced security settings.

Answer: A

QUESTION 29
You have a computer that runs Windows 7. Multiple users log on to the computer. The computer has five removable devices. You need to ensure that users can only access removable devices that have been previously installed on the computer.
What should you modify in the Local Group Policy?

A.    Enable the Prevent redirection of USB devices setting.
B.    Enable the Prevent installation of removable devices setting.
C.    Disable the WPD Devices: Deny read access setting.
D.    Disable the Allow administrators to override Device Installation Restriction policies setting.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Prevent installation of removable devices
This policy setting allows you to prevent Windows from installing removable devices. A device is considered removable when the driver for the device to which it is connected indicates that the device is removable. For example, a Universal Serial Bus (USB) device is reported to be removable by the drivers for the USB hub to which the device is connected. This policy setting takes precedence over any other policy setting that allows Windows to install a device. If you enable this policy setting, Windows is prevented from installing removable devices and existing removable devices cannot have their drivers updated. If you enable this policy setting on a remote desktop server, the policy setting affects redirection of removable devices from a remote desktop client to the remote desktop server. If you disable or do not configure this policy setting, Windows can install and update device drivers for removable devices as allowed or prevented by other policy settings. NOT Prevent redirection of USB devicesThis policy setting prevents redirection of USB devices. If you enable this setting, an alternate driver for USB devices cannot be loaded. If you disable or do not configure this setting, an alternate driver for USB devices can be loaded.

QUESTION 30
Your network consists of a single Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You have a server named Server1 that runs a custom network application.
Server1 has the following IP addresses:
– 192.168.15.10
– 192.168.15.11
You need to ensure that a client computer resolves server1.contoso.com to only the 192.168.15.11 IP address. What should you do from the computer?

A.    Edit the hosts file.
B.    Edit the lmhosts file.
C.    Run Ipconfig.exe /flushdns.
D.    Run Netsh interface ipv4 reset.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Differences Between the HOSTS and LMHOSTS Files in Windows NT In Windows NT, the HOSTS file is for TCP/IP utilities, and the LMHOSTS file is for LAN Manager NET utilities. If you cannot PING another computer (using a friendly name), check the HOSTS file. If you cannot NET VIEW a server using only the TCP/IP protocol, check the LMHOSTS file.
Hosts fileThe Hosts file is a common way to resolve a host name to an IP address through a locally stored text file that contains IP-address-to-host-name mappings. On most UNIX- based computers, this file is /etc/hosts. On Windows-based computers, this file is the Hosts file in the systemroot\System32\Drivers\Etc folder. The following describes the attributes of the Hosts file for Windows: A single entry consists of an IP (IPv4 or IPv6) address and one or more host names. The Hosts file is dynamically loaded into the DNS client resolver cache, which Windows Sockets applications use to resolve a host name to an IP address on both local and remote subnets. When you create entries in the Hosts file and save it, its contents are automatically loaded into the DNS client resolver cache. The Hosts file contains a default entry for the host name localhost. The Hosts file can be edited with any text editor. Each host name is limited to 255 characters. Entries in the Hosts file for Windows-based computers are not case sensitive. The advantage of using a Hosts file is that users can customize it for themselves. Each user can create whatever entries they want, including easy-to-remember nicknames for frequently accessed resources. However, the individual maintenance required for the Hosts file does not scale well to storing large numbers of FQDN mappings or reflecting changes to IP addresses for servers and network resources. The solution for the large-scale storage and maintenance of FQDN mappings is DNS. The solution for the maintenance of FQDN mappings for changing IP addresses is DNS dynamic update.NOT LMHOSTS FileThe LMHOSTS file is a local text file that maps IP addresses to NetBIOS names of remote servers with which you want to communicate over the TCP/IP protocol. Windows recognizes names instead of IP addresses for network requests and a name discovery process is used to correctly route network requests with TCP/IP. Because the name discovery process is generally not routed by an IP router, the LMHOSTS file allows Windows machines to communicate using TCP/IP across a subnet.
– LMHOSTS contains IP address to “NetBIOS over TCP/IP” name translations.
– LMHOSTS is only used by the NBT (NetBIOS over TCP/IP) interface.
– LMHOSTS file contains some valuable additions to the LAN Manager and Windows for Workgroups
– LMHOSTS file, such as the ability to support routed domain logon validation.
– LMHOSTS contains static information about TCP/IP addresses, but using logon scripts and/or the replicator service, the “master” file can be distributed transparently across all stations.
– By default, the LMHOSTS file should be located in the directory %SYSTEMROOT%\SYSTEM32\DRIVERS \ETC (usually
C:\WINNT\SYSTEM32\DRIVERS\ETC).
Other info
http://support.microsoft.com/kb/105997

Passing Microsoft 70-680 Exam successfully in a short time! Just using Braindump2go’s Latest Microsoft 70-680 Dump:
http://www.braindump2go.com/70-680.html

Official 2014 Latest Microsoft 70-680 Exam Dump Free Download(11-20)

QUESTION 11
You have a portable computer that runs Windows 7. You configure the computer to enter sleep mode after 10 minutes of inactivity. You do not use the computer for 15 minutes and discover that the computer has not entered sleep mode. You need to identify what is preventing the computer from entering sleep mode. What should you do?

A.    At a command prompt, run Powercfg energy.
B.    At a command prompt, run Systeminfo /s localhost.
C.    From Performance Monitor, review the System Summary.
D.    From Performance Information and Tools, review the detailed performance and system information.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Command-line Power Configuration
Powercfg.exe is a command-line utility that you can use from an administrative command prompt to manage Windows 7 power settings. It is possible to use Powercfg.exe to configure a number of Windows 7 powerrelated settings that you cannot configure through Group Policy or the Advanced Plan Settings dialog box. You can use Powercfg.exe to configure specific devices so that they are able to wake the computer from the Sleep state. You can also use Powercfg.exe to migrate power policies from one computer running Windows 7 to another by using the import and export functionality.
-energy
Check the computer for common energy-efficiency and battery life problems. Provides report in Hypertext Markup Language (HTML) format.For more information on Powercfg.exe, consult the following Microsoft TechNet document:
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc748940.aspx.

QUESTION 12
You have a computer that runs Windows 7. Your network contains a VPN server that runs Windows Server 2008. You need to authenticate to the VPN server by using a smart card. Which authentication setting should you choose?

A.    CHAP
B.    EAP
C.    MS-CHAP v2
D.    PAP

Answer: B
Explanation:
VPN Server Software Requirements
VPN server software requirements for smart card access are relatively straightforward. The remote access servers must run Windows 2000 Server or later, have Routing and Remote Access enabled, and must support Extensible Authentication Protocol-Transport Layer Security (EAP-TLS). EAP-TLS is a mutual authentication mechanism developed for use in conjunction with security devices, such as smart cards and hardware tokens. EAP-TLS supports Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) and VPN connections, and enables exchange of shared secret keys for MPPE, in addition to Ipsec. The main benefits of EAP-TLS are its resistance to brute-force attacks and its support for mutual authentication. With mutual authentication, both client and server must prove their identities to each other. If either client or server does not send a certificate to validate its identity, the connection terminates.Microsoft Windows ServerTM 2003 supports EAP-TLS for dial-up and VPN connections, which enables the use of smart cards for remote users. For more information about EAP-TLS, see the Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) topic at www.microsoft.com/resources/documentation/windows/xp/all/proddocs/en-us/auth_eap.
mspx.
For more information about EAP certificate requirements, see the Microsoft Knowledge Base article “Certificate Requirements when you use EAP-TLS or PEAP with EAP-TLS” at http://support.microsoft.com/default.aspx? scid=814394.

QUESTION 13
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 7.
The computer is a member of an Active Directory domain. The network contains a file server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2008. You log on to the computer by using an account named User1. You need to ensure that when you connect to Server1, you authenticate by using an account named Admin1. What should you do on Computer1?

A.    From User Accounts, select Link online IDs.
B.    From Windows CardSpace, select Add a card.
C.    From Credential Manager, select Add a Windows credential.
D.    From Local Security Policy, modify the Access this computer from the network user right.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Credential Manager
Credential Manager stores logon user name and passwords for network resources, including file servers, Web sites, and terminal services servers. Credential Manager stores user name and password data in the Windows Vault. You can back up the Windows Vault and restore it on other computers running Windows 7 as a method of transferring saved credentials from one computer to another. Although Credential Manager can be used to back up some forms of digital certificates, it cannot be used to back up and restore the self- signed Encrypting File System (EFS) certificates that Windows 7 generates automatically when you encrypt a file. For this reason, you must back up EFS certificates using other tools. You will learn about backing up EFS certificates later in this lesson.
 clip_image002[1]

QUESTION 14
You have a computer that runs Windows 7. You create a HomeGroup. You need to secure the HomeGroup to meet the following requirements:
– Allow access to the HomeGroup when you are connected to private networks.
– Block access to the HomeGroup when you are connected to public networks.
What should you do?

A.    From Network and Sharing Center, modify the advanced sharing settings.
B.    From the HomeGroup settings in Control Panel, modify the advanced sharing settings.
C.    Configure the HomeGroup exception in Windows Firewall to include Home or work (private) networks
and block Public networks.
D.    Configure the File and Printer Sharing exception in Windows Firewall to include Home or work (private)
networks and block Public networks.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Windows Firewall does not allow you to create firewall rules for specific network locations on the basis of port address. Windows Firewall does not allow you to create rules that differentiate between the home and work network locations. You can only create rules that differentiate on the basis of home and work or public network locations.
HomeGroup Connections
This option decides how authentication works for connections to HomeGroup resources. If all computers in the HomeGroup have the same user name and passwords configured, you can set this option to allow Windows to manage HomeGroup connections. If different user accounts and passwords are present, you should configure the option to use user accounts and passwords to connect to other computers. This option is available only in the Home/Work network profile.

QUESTION 15
A user named User1 uses a shared computer that runs Windows 7. User1 is a member of group named Group1. The computer contains a folder named Folder1.
You need to configure the permissions on Folder1 to meet the following requirements:
– User1 must be allowed to delete all files in Folder1.
– Members of Group1 must be able to create files in Folder1.
– All other members of Group1 must be prevented from deleting files they did not create in Folder1.
– All users must be prevented from modifying the permissions on Folder1.
What should you do?

A.    Assign Group1 the Write permission. Assign User1 the Modify permission.
B.    Assign Group1 the Modify permission. Assign User1 the Write permission.
C.    Deny Group1 the Write permission. Assign User1 the Modify permission.
D.    Deny Group1 the Modify permission. Assign User1 the Write permission.

Answer: A
Explanation:
File and Folder Permissions
ReadFolders: Permits viewing and listing of files and subfoldersFiles: Permits viewing or accessing of the file’s contentsWriteFolders: Permits adding of files and subfoldersFiles:
Permits writing to a fileRead & ExecuteFolders: Permits viewing and listing of files and subfolders as well as executing of files; inherited by files and folders Files: Permits viewing and accessing of the file’s contents as well as executing of the fileList Folder ContentsFolders: Permits viewing and listing of files and subfolders as well as executing of files; inherited by folders onlyFiles: N/AModifyFolders: Permits reading and writing of files and subfolders; allows deletion of the folderFiles: Permits reading and writing of the file; allows deletion of the fileFull ControlFolders: Permits reading, writing, changing, and deleting of files and subfoldersFiles: Permits reading, writing, changing and deleting of the file

QUESTION 16
Your company has an internal Web site that requires HTTPS. The Web site’s certificate is self-signed. You have a computer that runs Windows 7 and Windows Internet Explorer 8. You use HTTPS to browse to the Web site and receive the following warning message. There is a problem with this website’s security certificate. You need to prevent the warning message from appearing when you access the Web site. What should you do?

A.    From Internet Explorer, enable InPrivate Browsing.
B.    From Internet Explorer, add the Web site to the Trusted sites zone.
C.    From Certificate Manager, import the Web sites certificate into your Personal store.
D.    From Certificate Manager, import the Web sites certificate into your Trusted Root Certification
Authorities store.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Certificate Manager
A certificate manager can approve certificate enrollment and revocation requests, issue certificates, and manage certificates. This role can be configured by assigning a user or group the Issue and Manage Certificatespermission. When you assign this permission to a user or group, you can further refine their ability to manage certificates by group and by certificate template. For example, you might want to implement a restriction that they can only approve requests or revoke smart card logon certificates for users in a certain office or organizational unit that is the basis for a security group.Importing CertificatesYou may restore certificates and the corresponding private keys from a file.
6. Right-click the certificate store you want to import, and click Install PFX on the context menu.
7. The Certificate Import Wizard launches. Click Next.
8. In the File name text box, type the name of the certificate file that you want to import. Alternatively, you can find the file by clicking Browse.
9. Click Next. If the file specified is a Personal Information Exchange-KCS #12 (*.pfx), you will be prompted for the password. Enter the password to import the file. Click Next.
10. On the next page, select where you’d like to store the certificate. Click Next.
11. The next wizard page contains summary information about the file that you are importing. Click Finish to import the file. The certificate(s) are now ready for use by the system.

QUESTION 17
Your network has a main office and a branch office. The branch office has five client computers that run Windows 7. All client computers are configured to use BranchCache. At the branch office, a computer named Computer1 is  experiencing performance issues. You need to temporarily prevent all computers from retrieving cached content from Computer1. What should you do on Computer1?

A.    At the command prompt, run Netsh branchcache flush.
B.    At the command prompt, run Netsh branchcache dump.
C.    Modify the Configure BranchCache for network files Group Policy setting.
D.    Modify the Set percentage of disk space used for client computer cache Group Policy setting.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Flush
Deletes the contents of the local BranchCache cache.

QUESTION 18
You have a standalone computer that runs Windows 7. Multiple users share the computer. You need to ensure that you can read the content of all encrypted files on the computer. What should you do?

A.    Run the Certificates Enrollment wizard and then run Certutil.exe -importpfx.
B.    Run the Certificates Enrollment wizard and then run Certutil.exe -installcert.
C.    Run Cipher.exe /r and then add a data recovery agent from the local security policy.
D.    Run Cipher.exe /rekey and then import a security template from the local security policy.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Cipher
Displays or alters the encryption of folders and files on NTFS volumes. Used without parameters, cipher displays the encryption state of the current folder and any files it contains. Administrators can use Cipher.exe to encrypt and decrypt data on drives that use the NTFS file system and to view the encryption status of files and folders from a command prompt. The updated version adds another security option. This new option is the ability to overwrite data that you have deleted so that it cannot be recovered and accessed.When you delete files or folders, the data is not initially removed from the hard disk. Instead, the space on the disk that was occupied by the deleted data is “deallocated.” After it is deallocated, the space is available for use when new data is written to the disk. Until the space is overwritten, it is possible to recover the deleted data by using a low-level disk editor or data-recovery software.
If you create files in plain text and then encrypt them, Encrypting File System (EFS) makes a backup copy of the file so that, if an error occurs during the encryption process, the data is not lost. After the encryption is complete, the backup copy is deleted. As with other deleted files, the data is not completely removed until it has been overwritten. The new version of the Cipher utility is designed to prevent unauthorized recovery of such data.
/K Creates a new certificate and key for use with EFS. If this option is chosen, all the other options will be ignored. By default, /k creates a certificate and key that conform to current group plicy. If ECC is specified, a self-signed certificate will be created with the supplied key size. /R Generates an EFS recovery key and certificate, then writes them to a .PFX file (containing certificate and private key) and a .CER file (containing only the certificate). An administrator may add the contents of the .CER to the EFS recovery policy to create the recovery for users, and import the .PFX to recover individual files. If SMARTCARD is specified, then writes the recovery key and certificate to a smart card. A .CER file is generated (containing only the certificate). No .PFX file is genereated. By default, /R creates an 2048-bit RSA recovery key and certificate. If EECC is specified, it must be followed by a key size of 356, 384, or 521.

QUESTION 19
Your network contains an Active Directory domain. All servers run Windows Server 2008 R2 and are members of the domain. All servers are located in the main office. You have a portable computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 7. Computer1 is joined to the domain and is located in a branch office.A file server named Server1 contains a shared folder named Share1.
You need to configure Computer1 to meet the following requirements:
– Minimize network traffic between the main office and the branch office.
– Ensure that Computer1 can only access resources in Share1 while it is connected to the network.
What should you do?

A.    On Computer1, enable offline files.
B.    On Computer1, enable transparent caching.
C.    On Server1, configure DirectAccess.
D.    On Server1, configure Share1 to be available offline.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Transparent Caching
When you enable transparent caching, Windows 7 keeps a cached copy of all files that a user opens from shared folders on the local volume. The first time a user opens the file, the file is stored in the local cache. When the user opens the file again, Windows 7 checks the file to ensure that the cached copy is up to date and if it is, opens that instead. If the copy is not up to date, the client opens the copy hosted on the shared folder, also placing it in the local cache. Using a locally cached copy speeds up access to files stored on file servers on remote networks from the client. When a user changes a file, the client writes the changes to the copy of the file stored on the shared folder. When the shared folder is unavailable, the transparently cached copy is also unavailable. Transparent caching does not attempt to keep the local copy synced with the copy of the file on the remote file server as the Offline Files feature does. Transparent caching works on all files in a shared folder, not just those that you have configured to be available offline.

QUESTION 20
You have a computer that runs Windows 7.
Your network contains a DHCP server that runs Windows Server 2008 R2. The server is configured as a Network Access Protection (NAP) enforcement point.
You need to configure the computer as a NAP client.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents a part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    From Services, set the Netlogon service Startup Type to Automatic.
B.    From Services, set the Network Access Protection Agent service Startup Type to Automatic.
C.    From the NAP Client Configuration console, configure the user interface settings.
D.    From the NAP Client Configuration console, enable the DHCP Quarantine Enforcement Client.

Answer: BD
Explanation:
Network Access Protection
Network Access Protection (NAP) is a feature in Windows Server 2008 that controls access to network resources based on a client computer’s identity and compliance with corporate governance policy. NAP allows network administrators to define granular levels of network access based on who a client is, the groups to which the client belongs, and the degree to which that client is compliant with corporate governance policy. If a client is not compliant, NAP provides a mechanism to automatically bring the client back into compliance and then dynamically increase its level of network access.NAP Client ConfigurationNetwork Access Protection (NAP), a new feature in Windows Vista?and Windows Server?2008, allows you to control the access of client computers to network resources based on computer identity and compliance with corporate governance policy. To implement NAP, you must configure NAP settings on both servers and client computers. There are three tools that you can use to configure NAP client settings: The NAP Client Configuration console provides a graphical user interface with which you can configure NAP client settings on the local computer or in a configuration file that you can save and apply to other computers. The Netsh commands for NAP client provide a command-line tool that you can use to configure client computers or to create a configuration file that you can save and apply to other computers. If you want to manage NAP client settings on domain member client computers, you can use the Group Policy Management Console and the Group Policy Management Editor. When you configure NAP client settings in Group Policy, these settings are applied on NAP-capable domain member client computers when Group Policy is refreshed.To enable and disable the DHCP enforcement client by using the Windows interface
1. To open the NAP Client Configuration console, click Start, click All Programs, click Accessories, click Run, type NAPCLCFG.MSC, and then click OK.
2. Click Enforcement Clients.
3. Right-click DHCP Enforcement Client, and then click Enable or Disable.Network Access
Protection Agent
The Network Access Protection (NAP) agent service collects and manages health information for client computers on a network. Information collected by NAP agent is used to make sure that the client computer has the required software and settings. If a client computer is not compliant with health policy, it can be provided with restricted network access until its configuration is updated. Depending on the configuration of health policy, client computers might be automatically updated so that users quickly regain full network access without having to manually update their computer.

Passing Microsoft 70-680 Exam successfully in a short time! Just using Braindump2go’s Latest Microsoft 70-680 Dump:
http://www.braindump2go.com/70-680.html

Official 2014 Latest Microsoft 70-680 Exam Dump Free Download(1-10)

QUESTION 1
You have a computer that runs Windows 7. The computer has System Protection enabled. You need to retain only the last System Protection snapshot of the computer. All other snapshots must be deleted. What should you do?

A.    Run Disk Cleanup for Programs and features.
B.    Run Disk Cleanup for System Restore and Shadow Copies.
C.    From the System Protection Restore settings, select Turn off System Restore.
D.    From the System Protection Restore settings, select Only restore previous versions of files.

Answer: B
Explanation:
 clip_image001
Shadow info:
Shadow copies are automatically saved as part of a restore point. If system protection is enabled, Windows 7 automatically creates shadow copies of files that have been modified since the last restore point was created. By default, new restore points are created every seven days or whenever a significant system change (such as a driver or application installation) occurs.

QUESTION 2
You have a reference computer that runs Windows 7. You plan to deploy an image of the computer. You create an answer file named answer.xml. You need to ensure that the installation applies the answer file after you deploy the image. Which command should you run before you capture the image?

A.    Imagex.exe /append answer.xml /check.
B.    Imagex.exe /mount answer.xml /verify.
C.    Sysprep.exe /reboot /audit /unattend:answer.xml.
D.    Sysprep.exe /generalize /oobe /unattend:answer.xml.

Answer: D
Explanation:
To prepare the reference computer for the user, you use the Sysprep utility with the /generalize option to remove hardware-specific information from the Windows installation and the /oobe option to configure the computer to boot to Windows Welcome upon the next restart. Open an elevated command prompt on the reference computer and run the following command: c:\windows\system32\sysprep\sysprep.exe /oobe /generalize /shutdown Sysprep prepares the image for capture by cleaning up various user-specific and computer-specific settings, as well as log files. The reference installation now is complete and ready to be imaged.

QUESTION 3
You have a computer that runs Windows Vista Service Pack 2 (SP2). You need to upgrade the computer to Windows 7. What should you do?

A.    Start the computer from the Windows 7 installation media and select the Upgrade option.
B.    Start the computer from the Windows 7 installation media and select the Custom (advanced) option.
C.    From Windows Vista, run Setup.exe from the Windows 7 installation media and select the Upgrade option.
D.    From Windows Vista, run Setup.exe from the Windows 7 installation media and select the Custom option.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Upgrading Windows Vista to Windows 7 instructionsAccess the Windows 7 installation source and double-click Setup.exe. When prompted by User Account Control, click Allow. This loads the Install Windows page. Click Install Now.Other NotesYou can upgrade computers running Windows Vista to Windows 7. When you upgrade from Windows Vista to Windows 7, all documents, settings, applications, and user accounts that existed on the computer running Windows Vista are available when the upgrade is finished. The advantage to an upgrade is that it allows you to keep the current application configuration. When you perform a migration, you need to reinstall the user’s applications on the new computer. As mentioned previously, this can be problematic in organizations that are not careful about keeping track of which specific set of applications are installed on each user’s computer. Prior to attempting to perform the upgrade from Windows Vista to Windows 7, you should run the Windows 7 Upgrade Advisor. The Windows 7 Upgrade Advisor is an application that you can download from Microsoft’s Web site that will inform you if Windows 7 supports a computer running the current hardware and software configuration of Windows Vista. Prior to running the Windows 7 Upgrade Advisor, you should ensure that all hardware that you want to use with Windows 7, such as printers, scanners, and cameras, are connected to the computer. The Upgrade Advisor generates a report that informs you of which applications and devices are known to have problems with Windows
7. A similar compatibility report is generated during the upgrade process, but the version created by the Windows 7 Upgrade Advisor is more likely to be up to date.

QUESTION 4
You plan to deploy Windows 7 to 100 computers on your corporate network.
You install Windows 7 on a computer. You and need to prepare the computer to be imaged. What should you do before you create the image of the computer?

A.    At the command prompt, run the Dism command.
B.    At the command prompt, run the Sysprep command.
C.    Start the computer from the Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE) and then run the ImageX
command.
D.    Start the computer from the Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE) and then run the Wpeutil
command.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Sysprep
Sysprep is a tool designed for corporate system administrators, OEMs, and others who need to deploy the Windows?XP operating system on multiple computers. After performing the initial setup steps on a single system, you can run Sysprep to prepare the sample computer for cloning. Sysprep prepares the image for capture by cleaning up various user-specific and computer-specific settings, as well as log files. The reference installation now is complete and ready to be imaged.NOT ImagexImageX is a command- line tool that enables original equipment manufacturers (OEMs) and corporations to capture, to modify, and to apply file-based disk images for rapid deployment. ImageX works with Windows image (.wim) files for copying to a network, or it can work with other technologies that use .wim images, such as Windows Setup, Windows Deployment Services (Windows DS), and the System Management Server (SMS) Operating System Feature Deployment Pack.NOT DismDeployment Image Servicing and Management (DISM) is a command-line tool used to service Windows?images offline before deployment. You can use it to install, uninstall, configure, and update Windows features, packages, drivers, and international settings. Subsets of the DISM servicing commands are also available for servicing a running operating systemNOT WpeutilThe Windows PE utility (Wpeutil) is a command-line tool that enables you to run various commands in a Windows PE session. For example, you can shut down or restart Windows PE, enable or disable a firewall, set language settings, and initialize a network.

QUESTION 5
You have a new computer that does not have an operating system installed.
You have a virtual hard disk (VHD) that contains an installation of Windows 7.
You start the computer from the Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE).
You create a partition on the computer and copy the VHD to the partition.
You need to configure the computer to start from the VHD. Which tools should you use?

A.    Diskpart.exe and Bcdboot.exe
B.    Imagex.exe and Bcdedit.exe
C.    Scanstate.exe and Loadstate.exe
D.    Wpeutil.exe and Dism.exe

Answer: A
Explanation:
Diskpart
Microsoft command-line tool Diskpart is used to create and format volumes on the target computer.Bcdboot You now want to apply this customized image to the hard disks of two new computers you have purchased without operating systems. You boot each computer in turn from the Windows PE media and use ImageX to install the image. Your final step, to make the image bootable, is to use BCDboot from Windows PE to initialize the BCD store and copy boot environment files to the system partition. When you reboot each new computer, it will boot into Windows 7 and will have the same settings configured and applications installed as your original computer. Take care you are not violating any licensing conditions.

QUESTION 6
Your network contains 100 computers that run Windows XP. You need to identify which applications installed on all of the computers can run on Windows 7. You must achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort. What should you install?

A.    Microsoft Application Compatibility Toolkit (ACT)
B.    Microsoft Assessment and Planning (MAP) Toolkit
C.    Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT)
D.    Windows Automated Installation Kit (AIK)

Answer: A
Explanation:
The Microsoft Application Compatibility Toolkit (ACT) 5.6 enables software developers, independent software vendors (ISVs), and IT professionals who work in a corporate environment to determine, before deployment within the organization, whether their applications are compatible with a new version of the Windows?operating system. ACT also enables such individuals to determine how an update to the new version will affect their applications.
You can use the ACT features to:
– Verify your application’s, device’s, and computer’s compatibility with a new version of the Windows operating system, including determining your risk assessment.
– Verify a Windows update’s compatibility, including determining your risk assessment.
– Become involved in the ACT Community, including sharing your application assessment with other ACT users.
– Test your applications for issues related to User Account Control (UAC) by using the Standard User Analyzer (SUA) tool.
– Test your Web applications and Web sites for compatibility with new releases and security updates to Internet Explorer? by using the Internet Explorer Compatibility Test Tool.

QUESTION 7
Your network consists of a single IPv4 subnet. The subnet contains 20 computers that run Windows 7. You add a new computer named Computer1 to the subnet. You discover that Computer1 has an IP address of 169.254.34.12. You cannot connect to other computers on the network. Other computers on the network can connect to each other. You need to ensure that you can connect to all computers on the network. What should you do?

A.    Turn off Windows Firewall.
B.    Run Ipconfig.exe /renew.
C.    Configure a static TCP/IP address.
D.    Run Netsh.exe interface ipv4 install.

Answer: C
Explanation:
[Need better justification]
Configuring static IP addresses
When you assign a static IP address, you need to tell the computer the IP address you want to use, the subnet mask for this IP address, and, if necessary, the default gateway to use for internetwork communications. An IP address is a numeric identifier for a computer. Ip addressing schemes vary according to how your network is configured, but they’re normally assigned based on a particular network segment.

QUESTION 8
Your network consists of an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You have a computer named computer1.contoso.com. Your network is configured to use only IPv6. You need to request that a DNS record be created to enable users to connect to your computer by using the name dev.contoso.com.
Which type of record should you request?

A.    A
B.    AAAA
C.    HINFO
D.    NAPTR

Answer: B
Explanation:
The resolution of host names to IPv6 addresses is accomplished through DNS (apart from link-local addresses that are not stored by DNS and resolve automatically). The procedure is the same as for IPv4 address resolution with the computer name and IPv6 address pair being stored in a AAAA (quad-A) DNS resource record, which is equivalent to an A or host record for IPv4. Reverse DNS lookup that returns a computer name for an IPv6 address is implemented by a pointer (PTR) DNS resource record that is referred to the IPv6 reverse lookup zone (or tree) ipv6.arpa, which is the equivalent of the in-addr.arpa reverse lookup zone in Ipv4.
AAAAAn AAAA (quad-A) resource record resolves a host name to an IPv6 address.AAn A (address) resource record resolves a host name to an IPv4 address.HINFOHost information (HINFO) resource record. Specifies the type of CPU and operating system in the cpu_type and os_type fields, respectively, for the host DNS domain name in the owner field. Well-known CPU and operating system types that are most often used are noted in RFC 1700. This information can be used by application protocols such as FTP, which use special procedures when communicating with computers of a known CPU and operating system type.
NAPTR
The NAPTR represents a Naming Authority Pointer. NAPTR records map between sets of URNs, URLs and plain domain names and suggest to clients what protocol should be used to talk to the mapped resource. Each NAPTR record contains a service name, a set of flags, a regexp rule, an order value, a preference and a replacement. Multiple records can be chained together in a cascade to rewrite URIs in fairly sophisticated, but deterministic ways. These cascading rules have been standardized in RFC2915 and RFC3403.

QUESTION 9
Your network has a main office and a branch office. The branch office has five client computers that run Windows 7. All servers are located in the main office. All servers have BranchCache enabled. Users at the branch office report that it takes several minutes to open large files located in the main office. You need to minimize the amount of time it takes for branch office users to open files located in the main office. The solution must also reduce the amount of bandwidth used between the two offices. What should you do?

A.    At the main office, configure the Quality of Service (QoS) Packet Scheduler on all servers.
B.    At the main office, configure the servers to use Background Intelligent Transfer Service (BITS).
C.    At the branch office, configure the client computers to use BranchCache Hosted Cache mode.
D.    At the branch office, configure the client computers to use BranchCache Distributed Cache mode.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Distributed Cache ModeDistributed Cache mode uses peer caching to host the branch office cache among clients running Windows 7 on the branch office network. This means that each Distributed Cache mode client hosts part of the cache, but no single client hosts all the cache. When a client running Windows 7 retrieves content over the WAN, it places that content into its own cache. If another BranchCache client running Windows 7 attempts to access the same content, it is able to access that content directly from the first client rather than having to retrieve it over the WAN link. When it accesses the file from its peer, it also copies that file into its own cache. The advantage of distributed cache mode is that you can deploy it without having to deploy a server running Windows Server 2008 R2 locally in each branch office. The drawback of Distributed Cache mode is that the contents of the cache available on the branch office LAN depend on which clients are currently online. If a client needs a file that is held in the cache of a computer that is shut down, the client needs to retrieve the file from the host server across the WAN.Hosted Cache ModeHosted Cache mode uses a centralized local cache that hosted on a branch office server running Windows Server 2008 R2. You can enable the hosted cache server functionality on a server running Windows Server 2008 R2 that you use for other functions without a significant impact on performance. This is because if you found that files hosted at another location across the WAN were being accessed so frequently that there was a performance impact, you would use a solution like Distributed File System (DFS) to replicate them to the branch office instead of using BranchCache. The advantage of Hosted Cache mode over Distributed Cache mode is that the cache is centralized and always available. Parts of the distributed cache become unavailable when the clients hosting them shut down.Background Intelligent Transfer Service (BITS)The Background Intelligent Transfer Service (BITS) has two role services: the Compact Server and the IIS Server Extension. The Compact Server is a stand-alone HTTP or HTTPS file server, whereas the IIS Server Extension is an Internet Information Services (IIS) plug-in that requires a server running IIS. IIS Server ExtensionThe BITS IIS Server Extension lets you configure a server that is running IIS to allow BITS clients to perform background, resumable file uploads to IIS virtual directories. On completion of a file upload, the BITS Server can notify a Web application of the newly uploaded file. This allows the application to process the uploaded file. The Web application can then optionally reply to the client responsible for the upload.Compact ServerThe BITS Compact Server is a stand- alone HTTP or HTTPS file server, which allows applications to host files for BITS clients to download, and allows the asynchronous transfer of a limited number of large files between computers.QoS Packet SchedulerThe Quality of Service Packet Scheduler is a Windows platform component that is enabled by default on Windows Vista and Windows XP computers. It is, however, not enabled by default on Windows 2003 computers. This scheduler is designed to control the IP traffic for various network services, including Real Time Communications traffic. This component must be installed and enabled if the QoS markings described earlier for audio and video traffic are to be implemented by the IP stack.

QUESTION 10
You have a computer that runs Windows 7. You create an Encrypting File System (EFS) recovery key and certificate. You need to ensure that your user account can decrypt all EFS files on the computer. What should you do?

A.    From Credential Manager, add a Windows credential.
B.    From Credential Manager, add a certificate-based credential.
C.    From the local computer policy, add a data recovery agent.
D.    From the local computer policy, modify the Restore files and directories setting.

Answer: C
Explanation:
EFS Recovery
Recovery Agents are certificates that allow the restoration of EFS encrypted files. When a recovery agent has been specified using local policies, all EFS encrypted files can be recovered using the recovery agent private key. You should specify a recovery agent before you allow users to encrypt files on a client running Windows 7. You can recover all files that users encrypt after the creation of a recovery agent using the recovery agent’s private key. You are not able to decrypt files that were encrypted before a recovery agent certificate was specified. You create an EFS recovery agent by performing the following steps:
1. Log on to the client running Windows 7 using the first account created, which is the default administrator account.
2. Open a command prompt and issue the command Cipher.exe /r:recoveryagent
3. This creates two files: Recoveryagent.cer and Recoveryagent.pfx. Cipher.exe prompts you to specify a password when creating Recoveryagent.pfx.
4. Open the Local Group Policy Editor and navigate to the \Computer Configuration\Windows Settings\Security Settings\Public Key Policies\Encrypting File System node. Right-click this node and then click Add Data Recovery Agent. Specify the location of Recoveryagent.cer to specify this certificate as the recovery agent.
5. To recover files, use the certificates console to import Recoveryagent.pfx. This is the recovery agent’s private key. Keep it safe because it can be used to open any encrypted file on the client running Windows 7.

If you want to pass the Microsoft 70-680 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latest Microsoft 70-680 Dump full version.

Official 2014 Latest Microsoft 98-379 Demo Free Download(7-15)!

QUESTION 7
Drag and Drop Question
You create work items to test the features of an application. Match each work item type to its description. To answer, drag the appropriate work item type from the column on the left to its description on the right. Each work item type may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Each correct match is worth one point.
 clip_image002[14]
Answer:
 clip_image001[6]

QUESTION 8
Drag and Drop Question
Match each status to its test step. To answer, drag the appropriate status from the column on the left to its test step on the right. Each status may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Each correct match is worth one point.
 clip_image002[16]

Answer:
 clip_image001[8]

QUESTION 9
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. Bug tracking is the process of assigning severity and priority to a reported bug. Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed” if the underlined text makes the statement correct.

A.    No change is needed
B.    Logging
C.    Resolution
D.    Triage

Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Hotspot Question
You are asked to train an intern to create bug reports by using Team Foundation Server (TFS). You review the following bug report your intern created:
 clip_image002[18]
When this bug occurs, the user cannot continue using the application. Use the drop-down menus to complete each statement. Each correct selection is worth one point.
 clip_image001[10]
Answer:
 clip_image001[12]

QUESTION 11
You use Microsoft Test Manager to test a solution. Which two statements about using test cases in Microsoft Test Manager are correct? (Choose two.)

A.    You can share steps between different test cases.
B.    You need to add all fields to a test case when you create the test case.
C.    You must define test cases by using Microsoft Test Manager.
D.    You can add attachments and hyperlinks to test cases.

Answer: AD
Explanation:
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/vstudio/dd380712(v=vs.110).aspx

QUESTION 12
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. Severitydescribes how much a defect affects an application. Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed” if the underlined text makes the statement correct.

A.    No change is needed
B.    Effect level
C.    Scope
D.    Priority

Answer: A

QUESTION 13
You need to show the rolling average of the number of bugs that the testing team has opened, resolved, and closed.
Which report should you show?

A.    Bug trend
B.    Build quality indicators
C.    Bug status
D.    Burn rate

Answer: A

QUESTION 14
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. Bug convergence is the point at which the number of bugs resolved exceeds the number of bugs found.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed” if the underlined text makes the statement correct.

A.    No change is needed
B.    Baseline
C.    Burndown
D.    Code coverage

Answer: A

QUESTION 15
How many test plans are created in projects that use an agile methodology?

A.    One master test plan and one test plan for each sprint
B.    One test plan for each sprint
C.    One master test plan
D.    Multiple test plans for each sprint

Answer: A
 

If you want to pass the Microsoft 98-379 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latest Microsoft 98-379 Demo full version.

Official 2014 Latest Microsoft 98-379 Demo Free Download(1-6)!

QUESTION 1
When you log a bug, which two items should you include in the bug report to reproduce the bug? (Choose two.)

A.    The actions leading up to the bug
B.    The author of the code
C.    A description of the actual results
D.    The severity of bug

Answer: AB

QUESTION 2
Hotspot Question
You run a load test in Microsoft Test Manager. You monitor performance counters by using the Load Test Analyzer. The following graphic displays representative data:
 clip_image002[12]
Use the drop-down lists to complete each statement. Each correct selection is worth one point.

 clip_image001
Answer:
 clip_image001[4]

QUESTION 3
As part of a development team in a test-driven development environment, you are given the requirements for a new software system.
What should you do first?

A.    Implement the system in the code.
B.    Write a user story for the system.
C.    Run all existing test cases to validate they succeed.
D.    Write a test case for the new system.

Answer: D

QUESTION 4
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. In a use case diagram, the association between an actor and a use case can show a generalization at each end.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed” if the underlined text makes the statement correct.

A.    No change is needed
B.    Alternative
C.    Multiplicity
D.    Subsystem boundary

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. Fault tolerance is a redundancy technique that completely hides errors within a set of redundant modules.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed” if the underlined text makes the statement correct.

A.    No change is needed
B.    Fault masking
C.    Exception handling
D.    Regression testing

Answer: B

QUESTION 6
A system has the following requirement:
Patients should be sent to the Emergency Room if their respiratory rate is >= 20 and their age is >= 65.
How many test cases should you write to test all combinations of conditions?

A.    0
B.    2
C.    4
D.    9

Answer: D

If you want to pass the Microsoft 98-379 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latest Microsoft 98-379 Demo full version.

Official 2014 Latest Oracle 1Z0-482 Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
You want to add a new CDC subscriber in ODI after you have started the Journal process, what steps do you need to go through in order to use this new subscriber?

A.    Drop Journal, remove existing subscribers, add a new subscriber, start Journal, and edit the default Journalizing filter in your Interfaces
B.    Drop Journal,add anew subscriber, start Journal, and remove the default Journalizing filter in your Interfaces
C.    Drop Journal, add a new subscriber, start Journal, and edit the default Journalizing filter in your Interfaces
D.    Add anew subscriber and edit the default Journalizing filter in your Interfaces

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
You are loading a file into a database but the file name is unknown at design time and will have to be passed dynamically to a Package at run time; how do you achieve this?

A.    Create a variable, use it in Topology at the File dataserver-level, and add it to a package as a Declare Variable step
B.    Create a variable, use it in Topology at the File dataserver-level, and add it to a package as a Set Variable step
C.    Create a variable, use it as the Resource Name of the File datastore, and add it to a package as a Declare Variable step
D.    Create a variable, use it as the Resource Name of the File datastore, and add it to a package as a Set Variable step

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Select the two correct statements about the Date Profiler.

A.    It can profile string dates written in a variety of formats, such as DD/MM/YYYY or MM/DD/YYYY.
B.    It provides a distribution for the day in the year, such as February 21, regardless of the year.
C.    It allows the EDQ user to define a valid range of dates.
D.    By clicking a date in blue, the user can drill down to the records that carried that value.
E.    It rejects February 29 as an invalid date.

Answer: AD

QUESTION 4
Which two ODI knowledge modules are included in the Application Adapter for Hadoop?

A.    IKM Oracle Incremental Update
B.    IKM Hive Transform
C.    IKM SQL to File Append
D.    IKM FiletoHive

Answer: BD
Explanation:
http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E27101_01/doc.10/e27365/odi.htm

QUESTION 5
When working with delimited flat files, is it possible to enforce primary key on a flat file using a CKM?

A.    No, it is not possible to enforce constraints on some technologies such as flat files and JMS queues.
B.    No, it is not possible to enforce constraints on any technology.
C.    Yes, it is possible also to forward-engineer it to the flat file definition.
D.    Yes, but you have to save it as a fixed file.

Answer: A

If you want to pass the Oracle 1Z0-482 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latest Oracle 1Z0-482 Demo full version.

Official 2014 Latest CompTIA SY0-401 Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
Which of the following protocols operates at the HIGHEST level of the OSI model?

A.    ICMP
B.    IPSec
C.    SCP
D.    TCP

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which of the following should an administrator implement to research current attack methodologies?

A.    Design reviews
B.    Honeypot
C.    Vulnerability scanner
D.    Code reviews

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Drag and Drop Question
Task: Determine the types of attacks below by selecting an option from the dropdown list.
 clip_image002
Answer:
 clip_image002[4]

QUESTION 4
Which of the following can be implemented in hardware or software to protect a web server from cross-site scripting attacks?

A.    Intrusion Detection System
B.    Flood Guard Protection
C.    Web Application Firewall
D.    URL Content Filter

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which of the following means of wireless authentication is easily vulnerable to spoofing?

A.    MAC Filtering
B.    WPA – LEAP
C.    WPA – PEAP
D.    Enabled SSID

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Lab Sim – Configure the Firewall
Task: Configure the firewall (fill out the table) to allow these four rules:
– Only allow the Accounting computer to have HTTPS access to the Administrative server.
– Only allow the HR computer to be able to communicate with the Server 2 System over SCP.
– Allow the IT computer to have access to both the Administrative Server 1 and Administrative Server 2
 clip_image002[6]
 clip_image002[8]
Answer:
Use the following answer for this simulation task. Below table has all the answers required for this question.
 clip_image002[10]

QUESTION 7
Jane, a security administrator, needs to implement a secure wireless authentication method that uses a remote RADIUS server for authentication.
Which of the following is an authentication method Jane should use?

A.    WPA2-PSK
B.    WEP-PSK
C.    CCMP
D.    LEAP

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Computer evidence at a crime scene is documented with a tag stating who had possession of the evidence at a given time.
Which of the following does this illustrate?

A.    System image capture
B.    Record time offset
C.    Order of volatility
D.    Chain of custody

Answer: D

QUESTION 9
A network administrator is configuring access control for the sales department which has high employee turnover. Which of the following is BEST suited when assigning user rights to individuals in the sales department?

A.    Time of day restrictions
B.    Group based privileges
C.    User assigned privileges
D.    Domain admin restrictions

Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is being tested when a company’s payroll server is powered off for eight hours?

A.    Succession plan
B.    Business impact document
C.    Continuity of operations plan
D.    Risk assessment plan

Answer: C

QUESTION 11
A security analyst, Ann, is reviewing an IRC channel and notices that a malicious exploit has been created for a frequently used application. She notifies the software vendor and asks them for remediation steps, but is alarmed to find that no patches are available to mitigate this vulnerability.
Which of the following BEST describes this exploit?

A.    Malicious insider threat
B.    Zero-day
C.    Client-side attack
D.    Malicious add-on

Answer: B

QUESTION 12
A security administrator has concerns about new types of media which allow for the mass distribution of personal comments to a select group of people. To mitigate the risks involved with this media, employees should receive training on which of the following?

A.    Peer to Peer
B.    Mobile devices
C.    Social networking
D.    Personally owned devices

Answer: C

QUESTION 13
A network administrator is responsible for securing applications against external attacks. Every month, the underlying operating system is updated. There is no process in place for other software updates.
Which of the following processes could MOST effectively mitigate these risks?

A.    Application hardening
B.    Application change management
C.    Application patch management
D.    Application firewall review

Answer: C

If you want to pass the CompTIA SY0-401 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latest CompTIA SY0-401 Demo full version.

Official 2014 Latest Zend 200-550 Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
What is the result of the following bitwise operation in PHP?
1 ^ 2

A.    1
B.    3
C.    2
D.    4
E.    -1

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What is the output of the following code?
echo “22” + “0.2”, 23 . 1;

A.    220.2231
B.    22.2231
C.    22.2,231
D.    56.2

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
What is the output of the following code?
$first = “second”;
$second = “first”;
echo $$$first;

A.    “first”
B.    “second”
C.    an empty string
D.    an error

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Your supervisor wants you to disallow PHP scripts to open remote HTTP and FTP resources using PHP’s file functions. Which php.ini setting should you change accordingly?
Answer: allow_url_fopen, allow_url_fopen=off, allow_url_fopen=Off, allow_url_fopen = off, allow_url_fopen = Off

QUESTION 5
Which of the following code snippets DO NOT write the exact content of the file “source.txt” to “target.txt”? (Choose 2)

A.    file_put_contents(“target.txt”, fopen(“source.txt”, “r”));
B.    file_put_contents(“target.txt”, readfile(“source.txt”));
C.    file_put_contents(“target.txt”, join(file(“source.txt”), “\n”));
D.    file_put_contents(“target.txt”, file_get_contents(“source.txt”));
E.    $handle = fopen(“target.txt”, “w+”); fwrite($handle, file_get_contents(“source.txt”)); fclose($handle);

Answer: BC

QUESTION 6
What is the recommended method of copying data between two opened files?

A.    copy($source_file, $destination_file);
B.    copy($destination_file, $source_file);
C.    stream_copy_to_stream($source_file, $destination_file);
D.    stream_copy_to_stream($destination_file, $source_file);
E.    stream_bucket_prepend($source_file, $destination_file);

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which of the following will set a 10 seconds read timeout for a stream?

A.    ini_set(“default_socket_timeout”, 10);
B.    stream_read_timeout($stream, 10);
C.    Specify the timeout as the 5th parameter to the fsockopen() function used to open a stream
D.    stream_set_timeout($stream, 10);
E.    None of the above

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
What function allows resizing of PHP’s file write buffer?

A.    ob_start()
B.    set_write_buffer()
C.    stream_set_write_buffer()
D.    Change the output_buffering INI setting via ini_set() function

Answer: C

QUESTION 9
What does the __FILE__ constant contain?

A.    The filename of the current script.
B.    The full path to the current script.
C.    The URL of the request made.
D.    The path to the main script.

Answer: B

QUESTION 10
What can prevent PHP from being able to open a file on the hard drive (Choose 2)?

A.    File system permissions
B.    File is outside of open_basedir
C.    File is inside the /tmp directory.
D.    PHP is running in CGI mode.

Answer: AB

QUESTION 11
What purpose do namespaces fulfill?

A.    Encapsulation
B.    Alternative to classes
C.    Improved performance
D.    All of the above

Answer: A

QUESTION 12
When would you use classes and when would you use namespaces?

A.    Use classes to encapsulate code and represent objects, and namespaces to avoid symbol name collisions
B.    Use classes for performance-sensitive code, and namespaces when readability matters more
C.    Use namespaces for performance-sensitive code, and classes when readability matters more
D.    Always use them; namespaces are always superior to classes

Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which of these elements can be encapsulated by namespaces and made accessible from the outside?

A.    Only classes
B.    Classes, functions and constants
C.    Classes, functions, constants and variables

Answer: B

If you want to pass the Zend 200-550 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latest Zend 200-550 Demo full version.

Official 2014 Latest Zend 200-500 Demo Free Download(11-15)!

QUESTION 11
Which piece of code will return the ASCII value of a character?

A.    (int)’t’;
B.    ord(‘t’);
C.    to_ascii(‘t’);
D.    chr(‘t’);

Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which of the following data types cannot be directly manipulated by the client?

A.    Cookie Data
B.    Session Data
C.    Remote IP Address
D.    User Agent

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
An HTML form contains this form element:
<input type=”image” name=”myImage” src=”image.png” />
The user clicks on the image to submit the form. How can you now access the relative coordinates of the mouse click?

A.    $_IMAGE[‘myImage’][‘x’] and $_IMAGE[‘myImage’][‘y’]
B.    $_POST[‘myImage’][‘x’] and $_POST[‘myImage’][‘x’]
C.    $_POST[‘myImage.x’] and $_POST[‘myImage.y’]
D.    $_POST[‘myImage_x’] and $_POST[‘myImage_y’]

Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which of the following statements is correct?

A.    Interfaces can extend only one interface
B.    Interfaces can extend more than one interface
C.    Interfaces can inherit a method from different interfaces
D.    Interfaces can redeclare inherited methods

Answer: B

QUESTION 15
You are creating an application that generates invoices in a variety of formats, including PDF, ODS and HTML. Each of these formats is represented as a PHP class in your application. While some of the operations can be performed on all of the different formats (such as saving and loading), other operations may be specific to one or two of the formats (such as setting as read only). Which design pattern should you use for this application?

A.    Adapter
B.    Factory
C.    MVC
D.    Singleton

Answer: B

If you want to pass the Zend 200-500 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latest Zend 200-500 Demo full version.

Official 2014 Latest Zend 200-500 Demo Free Download(1-10)!

QUESTION 1
Which of the following can be registered as entry points with a SoapServer instance (choose 3)

A.    A single function
B.    A single method from a class
C.    Multiple functions at once
D.    All methods from a class
E.    All classes defined in a script

Answer: ACD

QUESTION 2
What DOMElement method should be used to check for availability of a non-namespaced attribute?

A.    getAttributeNS()
B.    getAttribute()
C.    hasAttribute()
D.    hasAttributeNS()

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which of the following data types is implicitly passed by reference in PHP 5 while it is passed by value in PHP 4?

A.    Class
B.    String
C.    Object
D.    Array

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
REST is a(n) …

A.    Web service protocol similar to SOAP with a strict XML schema.
B.    Principle to exchange information using XML and HTTP.
C.    API to get information from social networking sites.

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
What is the output of the following code?
echo 0×33, ‘ monkeys sit on ‘, 011, ‘ trees.’;

A.    33 monkeys sit on 11 trees.
B.    51 monkeys sit on 9 trees.
C.    monkeys sit on trees.
D.    0×33 monkeys sit on 011 trees.

Answer: B

QUESTION 6
When checking whether two English words are pronounced alike, which function should be used for the best possible result?

A.    levenshtein()
B.    metaphone()
C.    similar_text()
D.    soundex()

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Given the following code, what is correct?
function f(stdClass &$x = NULL) { $x = 42;
}
$z = new stdClass;
f($z);
var_dump($z);

A.    Error: Typehints cannot be NULL
B.    Error: Typehints cannot be references
C.    Result is NULL
D.    Result is object of type stdClass
E.    Result is 42

Answer: E

QUESTION 8
What is the maximum size of the VARCHAR column type?

A.    255 Bytes
B.    255 Characters
C.    512 Bytes
D.    512 Characters
E.    No Limit

Answer: B

QUESTION 9
What is the output of the following code?
<code>
class test {
public $value = 0;
function test() {
$this->value = 1;
} function __construct() {
$this->value = 2;
}}
$object = new test();
echo $object->value;

A.    2
B.    1
C.    0
D.    3
E.    No Output, PHP will generate an error message.

Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Transactions can be used to: (Choose 2)

A.    Recover from errors in case of a power outage or a failure in the SQL connection
B.    Ensure that the data is properly formatted
C.    Ensure that either all statements are performed properly, or that none of them are.
D.    Recover from user errors

Answer: AC

If you want to pass the Zend 200-500 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latest Zend 200-500 Demo full version.

2014 Latest Microsoft 70-342 Dump Free Download(71-80)!

QUESTION 71
Your company has three data centers. The data centers are located in Montreal, New York, and Seattle.
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization that contains six servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
 clip_image001[24]
The organization is configured as shown in the following exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
 clip_image002[34]
The file share witness for DAG1 is located on EX3. You plan to implement site resiliency and use a single name space named mail.contoso.com. You need to recommend a solution to minimize the amount of time that the Exchange Server services are unavailable if either the data center in Montreal or the data center in Seattle fails. Which two tasks should you recommend performing? (Each correct answer presents part of solution.
Choose two.)

A.    Deploy a hardware load balancer to EX3 and EX6.
B.    Create two DNS host (A) records for mail.contoso.com.
C.    Configure EX6 as an alternate file share witness.
D.    Move the file share witness to Server1.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 72
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization.
You create a data loss prevention (DLP) policy. The mode of the DLP policy is set to Enforce.
You need to ensure that email messages containing social security numbers from the United States are blocked.
Which two possible rules achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A.    U.S. State Breach: Allow Override
B.    U.S. State Breach: Scan email sent outside – low count
C.    U.S. State Breach: Scan email sent outside – high count
D.    U.S. State Breach: Scan text limit exceeded
E.    U.S. State Breach: Attachment not supported

Answer: BC
Explanation:
Note:
* In Microsoft Exchange Server 2013, you can use data loss prevention (DLP) policy templates to help meet the messaging policy and compliance needs of your organization. These templates contain pre-built sets of rules that can help you manage message data that is associated with several common legal and regulatory requirements.
* DLP policy templates in Exchange include:
U.S. State Breach Notification Laws
Helps detect the presence of information subject to U.S. State Breach Notification Laws, including data like social security and credit card numbers.

QUESTION 73
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization.
You purchase a Microsoft Office 365 subscription and configure a hybrid deployment. The network contains an SMTP relay server named smarthost.contoso.com. The server is configured to use a certificate that has a subject name of smarthost.contoso.com.
All users have Microsoft Outlook 2013 installed on their client computer. Outlook 2013 is configured to connect to mail.contoso.com.
All Exchange servers have a certificate that has a subject name of mail.contoso.com.
You discover that email messages sent from on-premises users are not delivered to Office 365 recipients. You discover that the Send connector for Office 365 uses a smart host of smarthost.contoso.com.
You need to ensure that the on-premises users can send email messages to the Office 365 recipients.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Run the Hybrid Configuration Wizard again.
B.    Configure the Microsoft Exchange Online Protection (EOP) Send connector to use smarthost.contoso.com
C.    Configure the centralized mail transport option.
D.    Remove the smart host from the Send connector.
E.    Assign a certificate that has a subject name of smarthost.contoso.com to the Send connector.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 74
You have a server named Server1 that has Exchange Server 2013 installed.
Users access their mailbox by using Microsoft Outlook 2010 and Outlook Web App.
You enable auditing for all of the mailboxes.
You need to identify when a mailbox is accessed by someone other than the owner of the mailbox.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A.    Export the administrator audit log.
B.    Run an administrator role group report.
C.    Export the mailbox audit log.
D.    Run a non-owner mailbox access report.
E.    Review the security event log.

Answer: CD
Explanation:
C: Use the Auditing tab to run reports or export entries from the mailbox audit log and the administrator audit log.
/ The mailbox audit log records whenever a mailbox is accessed by someone other than the person who owns the mailbox. This can help you determine who has accessed a mailbox and what they have done.
/ The administrator audit log records any action, based on a Windows PowerShell cmdlet, performed by an administrator. This can help you troubleshoot configuration issues or identify the cause of security- or compliance-related problems.
D: Run a Non-Owner Mailbox Access Report
Use this report to find mailboxes that have been accessed by someone other than the person who owns the mailbox.

QUESTION 75
Hotspot Question
Your company implements Exchange Server 2013 Unified Messaging (UM).
The company uses an auto attendant.
You need to ensure that when calls are routed to the auto attendant, callers can press 0 to reach a receptionist.
Which option should you configure from the UM Auto Attendant window? To answer, select the appropriate option in the answer area.
 clip_image002[36]
Answer:
 clip_image002[38]

QUESTION 76
Hotspot Question
You have an Exchange Server organization that contains four servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
 clip_image002[40]
SiteA contains an IP gateway that uses a dial plan named Dialplan1. SiteB contains a Lync Server 2013 server that uses a dial plan named Dialplan2. You plan to migrate all Unified Messaging (UM) functionalities to Exchange Server 2013.
You need to identify which tasks must be performed to complete the migration. Which tasks should you identify?
(To answer, select the tasks that are required and not required in the answer area.)
 clip_image001[26]
Answer:
 clip_image001[28]

QUESTION 77
Hotspot Question
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization.
All users are enabled for Unified Messaging (UM) and access their voice mail by using Microsoft Lync 2010. Callers report that when they press a key to dial an external telephone number, they hear a message indicating that the intended destination cannot be reached.
You need to ensure that the callers can reach the external number successfully. What should you modify? To answer, select the appropriate object in the answer area.
 clip_image002[42]
Answer:
 clip_image002[44]

QUESTION 78
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization.
You successfully migrate the public folders from a previous version of Exchange Server.
You discover that one of the public folder mailboxes almost reached its quota size.
You need to move some of the public folders in the public folder mailbox to another public folder mailbox.
What should you run?

A.    Update-PublicFolderMailbox
B.    New-PublicFolderMoveRequest
C.    New-PublicFolderMigrationRequest
D.    Set-PublicFolderMailbox

Answer: B
Explanation:
* If the content of a public folder mailbox begins to exceed your mailbox quotas, you may need to move public folders to a different public folder mailbox. There are a couple ways to do this. To move one or more public folders that don’t contain subfolders, you can use the PublicFolderMoveRequest cmdlets.
* Use the New-PublicFolderMoveRequest cmdlet to begin the process of moving public folder contents between public folder mailboxes. Moving public folders only moves the physical contents of the public folder; it doesn’t change the logical hierarchy. When the move request is completed, you must run the Remove-PublicFolderMoveRequest cmdlet to remove the request or wait until the time specified in the CompletedRequestAgeLimit parameter has passed. The request must be removed before you can run another move request.
Incorrect:
Not A: Use the Update-PublicFolderMailbox cmdlet to update the hierarchy for public folders.
Not C: Use the New-PublicFolderMigrationRequest cmdlet to begin the process of migrating public folders from Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 or Exchange Server 2010 to Exchange Server 2013.
Reference: Move a Public Folder to a Different Public Folder Mailbox

QUESTION 79
Your company has three offices. Each office has 1,000 users and is configured as an Active Directory site. Each site connects directly to the Internet.
The network contains six servers that have Exchange Server 2013 installed. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
 clip_image001[30]
An administrator performs a datacenter switchover by changing the DNS record for webl.adatum.com to point to the IP address of web2.adatum.com.
Users from Main1 report that when they connect to Outlook Web App, they receive a certificate warning message.
You need to recommend a solution to ensure that the users do not receive a certificate warning message when a datacenter switchover is performed.
What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    Three host headers for the Default Web Site on each Client Access server
B.    One certificate that contains all of the external names as subject alternative names
C.    Three certificates that each contains one of the external names
D.    An external URL for each Client Access server set to $null

Answer: B

QUESTION 80
You have an Exchange Server 2010 organization named adatum.com.
All public folders are stored on a server named EX5.
You deploy a new server named EX6. EX6 has Exchange Server 2013 installed.
You move all mailboxes to EX6.
You need to move the public folders to EX6. The solution must ensure that users can access the public folders after EX5 is decommissioned.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    On EX6, create a public folder mailbox.
B.    On EX6, run the New-PublicFolderMigrationRequest cmdlet.
C.    On EX5, modify the replication partners for all of the public folders.
D.    On EX6, run the New-SiteMailboxProvisioningPolicy cmdlet.
E.    On EX5, assign the FolderOwner permission to the Public Folder Management management role group
for all of the public folders.
F.    On EX6, run the MoveAllReplicas.ps1 script.

Answer: AB
Explanation:
B: Use the New-PublicFolderMigrationRequest cmdlet to begin the process of migrating public folders from Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 or Exchange Server 2010 to Exchange Server 2013.
Note: See step 4 and 5 below.
Step 1: Download the migration scripts
Step 2: Prepare for the migration
Step 3: Generate the .csv files
Step 4: Create the public folder mailboxes on the Exchange 2013 server Step 5: Start the migration request
Example:
New-PublicFolderMigrationRequest -SourceDatabase (Get-PublicFolderDatabase -Server <Source server name>) -CSVData (Get-Content <Folder to mailbox map path> -Encoding Byte) -BadItemLimit $BadItemLimitCount
Step 6: Lock down the public folders on the legacy Exchange server for final migration (downtime required)
Step 7: Finalize the public folder migration (downtime required) Step 8: Test and unlock the public folder migration

If you want to 100% pass the Microsoft 70-342 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latest Microsoft 70-342 Dump full version.

2014 Latest Microsoft 70-342 Dump Free Download(61-70)!

QUESTION 61
Drag and Drop Question
You have an Exchange Server organization named adatum.com. The organization contains servers that have Exchange Server 2010 and Exchange Server 2013 installed.
The company executives require that all email messages remain stored for three years.
You create two retention tags named Ret1 and Ret2. Ret1 moves the email messages to an Archive mailbox after one year. Ret2 permanently deletes the email messages after three years.
You need to meet the company executives’ requirements. The solution must ensure that all email messages that are older than two years are removed as quickly as possible. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate three actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
 clip_image002[12]
Answer:
 clip_image002[14]

QUESTION 62
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization named adatum.com. The organization contains five Mailbox servers.
You need to prevent a user named User8 from permanently deleting an email message in his mailbox.
What should you do on the mailbox of User8?

A.    Configure an in-place hold.
B.    Create an Archive mailbox.
C.    Configure a retention hold.
D.    Create a Retention tag.

Answer: A
Explanation:
In Exchange 2013, you can use In-Place Hold to accomplish the following goals:
Place user mailboxes on hold and preserve mailbox items immutably Preserve mailbox items deleted by users or automatic deletion processes such as MRM Use query-based In-Place Hold to search for and retain items matching specified criteria Preserve items indefinitely or for a specific duration Place a user on multiple holds for different cases or investigations Keep In-Place Hold transparent from the user by not having to suspend MRM Enable In-Place eDiscovery searches of items placed on hold
Note:
When a reasonable expectation of litigation exists, organizations are required to preserve electronically stored information (ESI), including email that’s relevant to the case. This expectation often exists before the specifics of the case are known, and preservation is often broad. Organizations may need to preserve all email related to a specific topic or all email for certain individuals.
Failure to preserve email can expose an organization to legal and financial risks such as scrutiny of the organization’s records retention and discovery processes, adverse legal judgments, sanctions, or fines.

QUESTION 63
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization named adatum.com.
You have a database availability group (DAG) that contains four Exchange servers named Server1, Server2, Server3, and Server4. The file share witness is on a server named Share1.
The organization has two Send connectors. The Send connectors are configured as shown in the following table.
 clip_image001[16]
Users report that email sent to external recipients is not being received. You discover that outbound email messages are queued on Server3 and Server4.
You need to ensure that all of the email messages queued on Server3 and Server4 are delivered to the Internet as quickly as possible.
What should you do?

A.    Modify the cost of External.
B.    Disable External1.
C.    Modify the list of source bridgehead servers of External2.
D.    Modify the cost of External1.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Note:
* In Microsoft Exchange Server 2013, a Send connector controls the flow of outbound messages to the receiving server.
* When a message is to be delivered to a remote delivery group, a routing path must be determined for the message. Exchange 2013 uses the same logic as Exchange 2010 to select the routing path for a message:
Calculate the least-cost routing path by adding the cost of the IP site links that must be traversed to reach the destination. If the destination is a connector, the cost assigned to the address space is added to the cost to reach the selected connector. If multiple routing paths are possible, the routing path with the lowest aggregate cost is used;
If more than one routing path has the same cost, the routing path with the least number of hops is used;
If more than one routing path is still available, the name assigned to the AD sites before the destination is considered. The routing path where the AD site nearest the destination is lowest in alphanumeric order is used. If the site nearest the destination is the same for all routing paths being evaluated, an earlier site name is considered.

QUESTION 64
You are a network administrator for a company named Humongous Insurance. Humongous Insurance has an Active Directory forest that contains two domains.
You install the Active Directory Rights Management Services server role on a server named ADRMS1. The Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) server uses an internal certification authority (CA) for all certificates.
You plan to provide users with the ability to use AD RMS to protect all of the email messages sent to a partner company named Contoso, Ltd.
Contoso does not have AD RMS deployed.
You need to identify which components from the Humongous Insurance network must be accessible to Contoso to ensure that the users at Contoso can open protected messages.
Which two components should you identify? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    the AD RMS cluster
B.    the certificate revocation list (CRL)
C.    the Active Directory domain controllers
D.    the Client Access servers
E.    the Mailbox servers
F.    the Global Catalog servers

Answer: BC
Explanation:
Certs require the CRL to be available and something to authenticate agains, aka the DCs.

QUESTION 65
You have an Exchange Server organization that contains four servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
 clip_image001[18]
You are deploying Unified Messaging (UM).
You create a dial plan named UMPIan1 and a UM mailbox policy named UMPlan Mailbox Policy.
You need to ensure that all voice mail sent to the existing extension of a user is delivered to the user’s mailbox.
Which three actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)

A.    Create a UM hunt group
B.    Create a UM IP gateway.
C.    Configure the IP-PBX to route calls to EX3 and EX4
D.    Configure the IP-PBX to route calls to EX1 and EX2.
E.    Assign EX1 and EX2 to UMPIan1.
F.     Assign EX3 and EX4 to UMPIan1.

Answer: ABC

QUESTION 66
Drag and Drop Question
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization that contains two Mailbox servers and two Client Access servers.
You have an Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) cluster. Information Rights Management (IRM) is enabled for the Exchange Server organization.
All company executives are in a security group named Execs. All of the executives use smartphones that are managed by using a mobile device mailbox policy. The executives frequently read IRM-protected email messages by using Microsoft Outlook.
You need to ensure that the executives can read the IRM-protected messages on their smartphone.
Which task should you perform in each environment? (To answer, drag the appropriate tasks to the correct environments. Each task may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
 clip_image002[16]
Answer:
 clip_image002[18]

QUESTION 67
Drag and Drop Question
Your company has two offices. Each office is configured as an Active Directory site. The sites are named Site1 and Site2.
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization that is configured as shown in the following exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
 clip_image002[20]
Datacenter Activation Coordination (DAC) mode is enabled on the database availability group (DAG) named DAG1. You are testing a site failover by shutting down all of the servers in Site1.
You need to mount the databases in Site2. Which three commands should you run in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate three commands from the list of commands to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
 clip_image002[22]
Answer:
 clip_image002[24]

QUESTION 68
Drag and Drop Question
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization.
Your company identifies the following security requirements:
– Users must be able to send encrypted email messages that can only be decrypted by the intended recipient.
– All email messages sent by a user named User1 to an external recipient must be protected by using TLS.
– All SMTP sessions to a remote SMTP host named SMTP1 must be encrypted.
You need to recommend which technology must be used to meet each requirement.
Which technologies should you recommend? (To answer, drag the appropriate technologies to the requirements in the answer area. Each technology may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
 clip_image002[26]
Answer:
 clip_image002[28]

QUESTION 69
Hotspot Question
Your company has a main office and a disaster recovery site. An Active Directory site named MainSite exists for the main office. An Active Directory site named DRSite exists for the disaster recovery site. The two sites connect to each other by using a WAN link. All users work in the main office.
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization. The organization contains six servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
 clip_image001[20]
All of the Mailbox servers are members of a database availability group (DAG) named DAG1.
After a WAN link failure, you discover that all of the active mailbox database copies are located on MBX3, even though MBX1 and MBX2 are still running. You need to prevent an automatic failover of DAG1 if the WAN link between the two sites fails but the servers in both sites are still running. The solution must prevent two active copies of the same database.
What should you do? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)
 clip_image002[30]
Answer:
 clip_image002[32]

QUESTION 70
You have an Exchange Server 2010 organization that contains three servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
 clip_image001[22]
Microsoft Outlook is configured to connect to an FQDN of mail.adatum.com. Mail.adatum.com resolves to the IP address of a Layer 7 hardware load balancer. The hardware load balancer is configured to send traffic to EX2 and EX3.
You deploy an Exchange Server 2013 Mailbox server and an Exchange Server 2013 Client Access server.
You plan to migrate all mailboxes to Exchange Server 2013.
You need to recommend a solution to ensure that users can access their mailbox on EX1 or EX4 during the migration.
What should you do?

A.    Create a Client Access server array that contains EX1 and EX5.
B.    Modify the autodiscover.contoso.com resource record to point to EX5.
C.    Modify the properties of the hardware load balancer to point to EX5.
D.    Create a DNS record named legacy.contoso.com in the internal DNS zone.

Answer: C

If you want to 100% pass the Microsoft 70-342 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latest Microsoft 70-342 Dump full version.

2014 Latest Microsoft 70-342 Dump Free Download(51-60)!

QUESTION 51
Drag and Drop Question
You have an Exchange Server 2013 database availability group (DAG). Each member of the DAG has two network interfaces named Network1 and Network2. Network1 is used for client connections. Network2 is used for database replication.
Network2 fails.
You discover that replication traffic is sent over Network1.
You need to ensure that all of the database replication traffic is sent over Network2. The solution must minimize database replication downtime.
Which three actions should you perform?
To answer, move the three appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
 clip_image002
Answer:
 clip_image002[4]
Explanation:
Box 1: Run the Suspend-MailboxDatabaseCopy cmdlet.
Box 2: Restore the connectivity to Network2.
Box 3: Run the Resume-MailboxDatabaseCopy cmdlet.
Note:
* You may need to suspend or resume a database copy for a variety of reasons, such as maintenance on the disk that contains a database copy, or suspend an individual database copy from activation for disaster recovery purposes.
This example suspends continuous replication for a copy of the database DB1 hosted on the server MBX1. An optional comment has also been specified.
Suspend-MailboxDatabaseCopy -Identity DB1\MBX1 -SuspendComment “Maintenance on MBX1” – Confirm:$False
This example resumes a copy of the database DB1 on the server MBX1.
Resume-MailboxDatabaseCopy -Identity DB1\MBX1
Reference: Suspend or Resume a Mailbox Database Copy

QUESTION 52
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization that contains two servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
 clip_image001
EX1 and EX2 are members of a database availability group (DAG) named DAG1. You have a database named DB1 that replicates to EX1 and EX2. EX1 fails. You discover that DB1 does not mount on EX2. You view the status of the mailbox databases as shown in the following table.
 clip_image001[4]
You need to ensure that the database attempts to mount on EX2 if EX1 fails.
What should you change?

A.    The AutoDatabaseMountDial setting to Lossless
B.    The AutoDatabaseMountDial setting to BestAvailabilty
C.    The activation preference of DB1\EX2
D.    The activation preference of DB1\EX1

Answer: B
Explanation:
* The MailboxServer.AutoDatabaseMountDial property gets or sets the automatic database mount behavior for an Exchange server that is running the Mailbox server role in a continuous replication environment after a database failover.
* The AutoDatabaseMountDial property specifies the automatic database mount behavior of a Mailbox server after a failover. Each behavior is based on the copy queue length, or the number of logs that are recognized by the passive copy that need to be replicated. If the copy queue length is greater than the value specified for the behavior, the database does not automatically mount. If the copy queue length is less than or equal to the value specified for the behavior, the Mailbox server tries to copy the remaining logs to the passive copy and mounts the database.
* BestAvailability
The database automatically mounts immediately after a failover if the queue length is less than or equal to 12.
Incorrect:
Not A: Lossless
The database does not automatically mount until all logs generated on the active device are copied to the passive device

QUESTION 53
Your company has a data center in New York and a data center in Miami.
The company has an Exchange Server 2013 organization that contains a database availability group (DAG).
The DAG contains servers in both data centers.
The company plans to deploy Outlook Anywhere to all users.
You configure the following:
– All of the Exchange Server 2013 virtual directories in the New York data center use a host name of mail.contoso.com.
– All of the Exchange Server 2013 virtual directories in the Miami data center use a host name of miami.mail.contoso.com.
– In each data center, a certificate from an enterprise certification authority (CA) is configured to contain the following:
– A certificate principal name of mail.contoso.com
– Subject alternate names of mail.contoso.com and miami.mail.contoso.com
You need to recommend which task must be performed to meet the following requirements:
– Users always must attempt to connect first to a server in the data center where their mailbox is located.
– Users must be able to access their mailbox if a single data center fails.
What should you recommend?

A.    Change the external host name of the Miami data center to mail.contoso.com.
B.    Modify the ExternalUrl of the Autodiscover virtual directory of the Client Access servers.
C.    Run the Set-OutlookProvider cmdlet.
D.    Run the Add-AvailabilityAddressSpace cmdlet.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Use the Set-OutlookProvider cmdlet to set specific global settings using the msExchOutlookProvider attribute on the msExchAutoDiscoverConfig object in Active Directory.
A – wrong because that would only confuse the DNS resolution and not allow clients to connect to their site
B – Correct – this is the only answer that specifies an external URL specific to each site
C – wrong because the Set-OutlookProvider cmdlet is Organization wide and not site-specific
D – wrong because this deals with free/busy information and not Outlook Anywhere connectivity
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb123683%28v=exchg.150%29.aspx

QUESTION 54
Your company has offices in Tokyo, Bangkok, and Shanghai.
All connections to the Internet are routed through an Internet connection in the Tokyo office. All of the offices connect to each other by using a WAN link.
The network contains 10 servers that have Exchange Server 2010 installed. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
 clip_image001[6]
You plan to deploy 10 servers that will have Exchange Server 2013 installed. The servers will be configured as shown in the following table.
 clip_image001[8]
Each site has an IP-PBX that provides telephony services for the mailboxes in that site by using unsecured SIP over TCP 5070. The IP-PBX uses the same port to connect to multiple SIP peers.
You need to recommend which tasks must be performed to ensure that the Unified Messaging (UM) features are available to the mailboxes if a single server fails.
Which three actions should you include in the recommendation? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)

A.    Configure the Exchange Server 2013 Mailbox servers to listen to unsecured SIP on TCP 5070.
B.    Configure the Exchange Server 2013 Client Access servers to listen to unsecured SIP on TCP 5070.
C.    Install the Client Access server role on the Exchange Server 2013 servers in the Shanghai and Bangkok offices.
D.    Configure the Exchange Server 2013 Mailbox servers as additional SIP peers that contain new pilot identifiers.
E.    Configure the Exchange Server 2013 Client Access servers as additional SIP peers that contain new pilot
identifiers.

Answer: BCE
Explanation:
Note:
* Exchange 2013 Unified Messaging offers administrators:
/ A complete voice mail system
Unified Messaging offers a complete voice mail solution using a single store, transport, and directory infrastructure. The store is provided by a Mailbox server and forwarding of incoming calls from a VoIP gateway or IP PBX is handled by a Client Access server. All email and voice mail messages can be managed from a single management point, using a single administration interface and tool set.
/ An Exchange security model
The Microsoft Exchange Unified Messaging service on a Mailbox server and the Microsoft Exchange Unified Messaging Call Router service on a Client Access server run as a single Exchange server account.
Consolidation
* The client access server (CAS) is a server role that handles all client connections to Exchange Server 2010 and Exchange 2013. The CAS supports all client connections to Exchange Server from Microsoft Outlook and Outlook Web App, as well as ActiveSync applications. The CAS also provides access to free/busy data in Exchange calendars.
The CAS is one of five server roles in Exchange Server 2007 and Exchange 2010, and one of two server roles in Exchange Server 2013. It must be installed in every Exchange Server organization and on every Active Directory (AD) site that has the Exchange mailbox server role installed.

QUESTION 55
You have an Exchange Server organization that contains five servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
 clip_image001[10]
You need to create a Lync Server SIP Unified Messaging (UM) dial plan to enable voice integration between Lync Server and Exchange Server.
Which three Exchange servers should you associate to the UM dial plans? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)

A.    EX1
B.    EX2
C.    EX3
D.    EX4
E.    EX5

Answer: CDE
Explanation:
Requirements and Recommendations
Client Access and Mailbox. In Microsoft Exchange Server 2013, Exchange UM runs as a service on these servers.
Reference: Configuring Unified Messaging on Microsoft Exchange Server to Work with Lync Server 2013
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa996399%28v=exchg.150%29.aspx

QUESTION 56
Drag and Drop Question
You have a server that has Exchange Server 2013 installed.
You plan to configure Unified Messaging (UM) to connect to an IP-PBX.
A telecommunications administrator configures the following numbers on the IP-PBX:
– First extension number: 12100
– Last extension number: 12499
– Help extension number: 12500
– Incoming pilot number: 12000
You need to configure UM to support the following requirements:
– Users must be able to use Outlook Voice Access.
– Users must be able to receive voice mail when callers connect to the users’ extension.
– Callers must be able to dial into an automated help system hosted by your company, which uses standard menus and speech-enabled menus.
Which numbers should you use for the UM configurations?
To answer, drag the appropriate number to the correct UM object in the answer area. Each number may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Additionally, you may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
 clip_image001[12]
Answer:
 clip_image001[14]
Explanation:
Box 1: 12000
Box 2: 12500
Box 3: 12000
Note:
* An Outlook Voice Access number lets a user who is enabled for Unified Messaging (UM) and voice mail access their mailbox using Outlook Voice Access. When you configure an Outlook Voice Access or subscriber access number on a dial plan, UM-enabled users can call in to the number, sign in to their mailbox, and access their email, voice mail, calendar, and personal contact information. By default, when you create a UM dial plan, an Outlook Voice Access number isn’t configured. To configure an Outlook Voice Access number, you first need to create the dial plan, and then configure an Outlook Voice Access number under the dial plan’s Outlook Voice Access option. Although an Outlook Voice Access number isn’t required, you need to configure at least one Outlook Voice Access number to enable a UM-enabled user to use Outlook Voice Access to access to their Exchange 2013 mailbox. You can configure multiple Outlook Voice Access numbers for a single dial plan.
* After you create a Unified Messaging (UM) auto attendant, incoming calls to an external telephone number that a human operator would ordinarily answer are answered by the auto attendant. Unlike with other Unified Messaging components, such as UM dial plans and UM IP gateways, you aren’t required to create UM auto attendants. However, auto attendants help internal and external callers locate users or departments that exist in an organization and transfer calls to them.
* Hunt group is a term used to describe a group of Private Branch eXchange (PBX) or IP PBX extension numbers that are shared by users. Hunt groups are used to efficiently distribute calls into or out of a specific business unit. Creating and defining a hunt group minimizes the chance that a caller who places an incoming call will receive a busy signal when the call is received. In a telephony network, a PBX or an IP PBX can be configured to have a single hunt group or multiple hunt groups. Each hunt group created on a PBX or IP PBX must have an associated pilot number. Using a pilot number helps to eliminate busy signals and to route incoming calls to the extension numbers that are available. The PBX or IP PBX uses the pilot number to locate the hunt group and in turn to locate the telephone extension number on which the incoming call was received and the extensions that are assigned to the hunt group. Without a defined pilot number, the PBX or IP PBX can’t locate where the incoming call was received.
Reference: Create a UM Auto Attendant

QUESTION 57
Drag and Drop Question
You are an administrator for a company named Contoso, Ltd. The company is an international reseller that has offices worldwide. One of the offices is located in France.
Each office contains several servers that have Exchange Server 2013 installed. The Exchange Server organization is configured for Unified Messaging (UM). Each office contains an IP-PBX device.
You need to ensure that callers to the France office can navigate the voice mail system menu in French.
In which order should you perform the actions?
To answer, move all actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
 clip_image002[6]
Answer:
 clip_image002[8]
Explanation:
Box 1: Install the French UM Language Pack on the Servers in the French office.
Box 2: Create a dial plan named ContosoFrance.
Box 3: Create a UM Hunt Group.
Box 4: Create a UM Auto Attendant named ContosoFranceAA.
Box 5: Assign the ContosoFrance Dial Plan to the users in the France office.

QUESTION 58
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization.
You successfully migrate the public folders from a previous version of Exchange Server.
You discover that one of the public folder mailboxes almost reached its quota size. You need to move some of the public folders in the public folder mailbox to another public folder mailbox.
What should you run?

A.    Split-PublicFolderMailbox.ps1
B.    Set-MailPublicFolder
C.    Update-PublicFolderMailbox
D.    Set-PublicFolderMailbox

Answer: A
Explanation:
* Split-PublicFolderMailbox.ps1
Splits the given public folder mailbox based on the size of the folders.
* If the content of a public folder mailbox begins to exceed your mailbox quotas, you may need to move public folders to a different public folder mailbox. There are a couple ways to do this. To move one or more public folders that don’t contain subfolders, you can use the PublicFolderMoveRequest cmdlets.
Reference: Move a Public Folder to a Different Public Folder Mailbox

QUESTION 59
You have a hybrid deployment of Exchange Server 2013 and Microsoft Office 365. The network does not have Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) 2.0 installed. A user named User1 reports that he cannot access his mailbox because his account is locked out. You verify that the mailbox of User2 is hosted on Office 365. You need to unlock the account of User1. Which cmdlet should you run?

A.    Set-MailUser
B.    Set-MSolUser
C.    Set-Mailbox
D.    Set-ADUser

Answer: B
Explanation:
Applies To: Office 365, Windows Azure, Windows Intune
The Set-MsolUser cmdlet is used to update a user object.
Parameters include:
-BlockCredential <Boolean>
When true, the user will not be able to sign in using their user ID.
Incorrect:
Not C: Set-Mailbox
Use the Set-Mailbox cmdlet to modify the settings of an existing mailbox.
Applies to: Exchange Server 2013, Exchange Online

QUESTION 60
You have a hybrid deployment of Exchange Server 2013 and Office 365. The mail flow between Office 365 and the on-premises Exchange Server environment is routed through an Exchange Server 2010 Edge Transport server.
Your company is assigned a new set of public IP addresses. A network administrator updates the external firewall address and all of the associated DNS records.
Office 365 users report that they cannot receive email messages from on-premises users.
You discover that outgoing email messages to Office 365 are in the Office 365 SMTP queue on an Edge server.
You need to ensure that the on-premises users can send email messages successfully to the
Office 365 users. Which tool should you use?

A.    The Exchange Management Console
B.    The Exchange Control Panel in Office 365
C.    The Exchange Admin Center
D.    The Exchange Remote Connectivity Analyzer

Answer: C
Explanation:
Note:
* The section describes the user interface elements that are common across the EAC (Exchange Admin Center).
 clip_image002[10]

If you want to 100% pass the Microsoft 70-342 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latest Microsoft 70-342 Dump full version.

Official 2014 Latest Cisco 010-151 Demo Free Download!

Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 010-151
Exam Name: Supporting Cisco Data Center System Devices
Version: DEMO
 
QUESTION 1
Which three statements about FCoE are true? (Choose three.)

A.    Allows Fibre Channel and Ethernet networks to share a single, integrated infrastructure.
B.    Encapsulates Fibre Channel frames into Ethernet frames, which allows them to run alongside traditional IP traffic.
C.    Increases capital costs due to the difficulty to manage.
D.    Consolidates I/O traffic in the data center.

Answer: ABD

QUESTION 2
Which cable is used to access the command-line interface of a Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnects?

A.    KVM cable
B.    console cable
C.    Ethernet cable
D.    SFP+ Ethernet transceiver cable

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Where do you find the model number of a Cisco MDS 9200 Series chassis?

A.    on the top front of the chassis next to the serial number
B.    on the bottom front of the chassis next to the Cisco logo
C.    on the top front of the chassis next to the Cisco logo
D.    on the bottom front of the chassis next to the serial number

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
How do you find the serial number of a Cisco UCS 5108 Blade Server chassis?

A.    Use the Cisco UCS Admin.
B.    Use the Cisco UCS Application.
C.    Use the Cisco UCS Assistant.
D.    Use the Cisco UCS Manager.

Answer: D

QUESTION 5
What does the system status LED look like when an over temperature or major alarm occurs on the Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnect?

A.    Amber
B.    Red
C.    Blinking amber
D.    Blinking red

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which processor option is supported in the Cisco UCS C420 M3 Server?

A.    up to two Intel Xeon E5-4600 series multicore processors
B.    up to two Intel Xeon E7-4800 series multicore processors
C.    up to four Intel Xeon E5-4600 series multicore processors
D.    two or four Intel Xeon E7-8800 series multicore processors

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which two major components does a Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch have? (Choose two.)

A.    Virtual Fiber Channel Module
B.    Virtual Ethernet Module
C.    Virtual Supervisor Module
D.    Virtual Memory Controller Module
E.    Virtual Network Module

Answer: BC

QUESTION 8
Which Cisco Nexus 5000 Series model supports 1/10G BASE-T ports?

A.    Cisco Nexus 5548P
B.    Cisco Nexus 5548UP
C.    Cisco Nexus 5596UP
D.    Cisco Nexus 5596T

Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which Cisco MDS model supports the most Fibre Channel ports per chassis?

A.    MDS 9513
B.    MDS 9509
C.    MDS 9506
D.    MDS 9250i

Answer: A

If you want to pass the Cisco 010-15 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latest Cisco 010-151 Demo full version.

clip_image001

2014 Latest Microsoft 70-342 Dump Free Download(41-50)!

QUESTION 41
You are evaluating the deployment of two additional Client Access servers and a hardware load balancer in the London office.
You need to recommend changes to the Client Access namespace design to meet the site resiliency requirements.
Which three actions should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)

A.    In the London office, set mail.proseware.com as the external host name for Outlook Anywhere.
In the New York office, set mail.proseware.com as the external host name for Outlook Anywhere.
B.    In the London office, set ionmail.proseware.com as the internal host name for Outlook Anywhere.
In the New York office, set nycmail.proseware.com as the internal host name for Outlook Anywhere.
C.    Use DNS round robin for the external host name for Outlook Anywhere.
D.    Use DNS round robin for the internal host name for Outlook Anywhere.
E.    In the London office, set nycmail.proseware.com as the external host name for Outlook Anywhere.
In the New York office, set ionmail.proseware.com as the external host name for Outlook Anywhere.
F.    In the London office, set mail.proseware.com as the internal host name for Outlook Anywhere.
In the New York office, set mail.proseware.com as the internal host name for Outlook Anywhere.

Answer: ABC
Explanation:
A: Use mail.proseware.com as the external host name for Outlook Anywhere at both locations.
B: Use internal names (lonmail.proseware.com and nycmail.proseware.com) as the internal host name for Outlook Anywhere in London and New York respectively.
C: To meet the resiliency requirement use the external host name (mail.proseware.com) for DNS round robin for Outlook anywhere.
* From scenario:
/ Users connect to mail.proseware.com for Microsoft Outlook and Outlook Web App services. Mail.proseware.com resolves to an IP address on a hardware load balancer.
/ All Outlook Anywhere users are enabled for Cached Exchange Mode.
/ Proseware has two main offices located in New York and London.
/
Site Resiliency Requirements
– All mailboxes must be available if a single site becomes unavailable. The solution must not require administrator intervention.
– User traffic on the WAN links must be minimized.
* Split DNS for Exchange Server 2013
Split DNS allows your internal clients to receive a different answer to their DNS lookups than an external client would receive. In effect you have your Exchange namespace hosted on your internal DNS server, with records configured to point to internal IP addresses.

QUESTION 42
You need to recommend a solution to meet the technical requirements for redundancy during email delivery.
Which cmdlet should you include in the recommendation?

A.    Set-FrontendTransportService
B.    Set-TransportConfig
C.    Set-MailboxTransportService
D.    Set-TransportService

Answer: B
Explanation:
 

QUESTION 43
Hotspot Question
You need to recommend which technology can be used to meet each email security requirement.
What should you recommend? (To answer, select the appropriate technology for each requirement in the answer area.)
 clip_image001[28]
Answer:
 clip_image002[56]

QUESTION 44
Drag and Drop Question
You need to recommend a solution to support the planned changes for the integration of the Exchange Server organizations of Contoso and Proseware.
What should you configure in each organization? (To answer, drag the appropriate objects to the correct forests. Each object may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
 clip_image002[58]
Answer:
 clip_image002[60]
QUESTION 45
You need to resolve the content filtering issue for the Office 365 pilot users.
What should you do?

A.    Run the Set-Mailbox cmdlet and specify the -MaxBiockedSenders and the -MicrosoftOnlineServicesID
parameters.
B.    Run the Microsoft Online Services Directory Synchronization Configuration Wizard and select Enable
Exchange hybrid deployment.
C.    Modify the default content filter policy from the Office 365 portal.
D.    Run the Set-Mailbox cmdlet and specify the -MaxSafeSenders and the -MicrosoftOnlineServicesID
parameters.

Answer: B

QUESTION 46
Hotspot Question
You need to recommend a solution to audit the issue of User1.
Which command should you recommend? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

 clip_image002[62]
Answer:
 clip_image002[64]
Explanation:
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb123981(v=exchg.150).aspx
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb676368(v=exchg.141).aspx

QUESTION 47
You discover that the Large Audience MailTip is not displayed when users compose an email message to the 20 new distribution groups.
You need to ensure that the Large Audience MailTip is displayed for the new distribution groups immediately.
Which cmdlet should you use?

A.    Set-DistributionGroup
B.    Set-MailboxServer
C.    Set-ClientAccessServer
D.    Start-ManagedFolderAssistant

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj674302(v=exchg.150).aspx

QUESTION 48
Drag and Drop Question
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization that has Information Rights Management (IRM) configured.
Users report that they cannot apply IRM protection to email messages from Outlook Web App.
You verify that the users can protect the messages by using IRM from Microsoft Outlook. You need to recommend a solution to ensure that the users can protect email messages by using IRM from Outlook Web App.
Which four actions should you recommend? To answer, move the four appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
 clip_image002[66]
Answer:
 clip_image002[68]
Explanation:
Box 1: Create a distribution group named Group1.
Box 2: Add the Microsoft Exchange Federation Mailbox user account to Group1.
Box 3: Enable the super users group and set the group to Group1.
Box 4: Run the Set-IRMConfiguration cmdlet.
Note:
* To enable IRM in Outlook Web App, you must add the Federation mailbox, a system mailbox created by Exchange 2013 Setup, to the super users group in AD RMS.
*
Step 1: Use the Shell to add the Federation mailbox to a distribution group If a distribution group has been created and configured as a super users group in the AD RMS cluster, you can add the Exchange 2013 Federation mailbox as a member of that group. If a super users group isn’t configured, you must create a distribution group and add the Federation mailbox as a member.
1.Create a distribution group dedicated for use as an AD RMS super users group.
2. Add the user FederatedEmail.4c1f4d8b-8179-4148-93bf-00a95fa1e042 to the new distribution group.
Step 2: Use AD RMS to set up a super users group
Perform the following procedure on an AD RMS cluster. The account used to perform this procedure must be a member of the AD RMS Enterprise Administrators local group on the AD RMS server.
1. Open the Active Directory Rights Management Services console and expand the AD RMS cluster.
2. In the console tree, expand Security Policies, and then click Super Users.
3. In the action pane, click Enable Super Users.
4. In the result pane, click Change Super User Group to open the Super Users property sheet.
5. In the Super user group box, type the email address of the distribution group you created in the previous procedure, or click Browse to select a distribution group.
* Information workers increasingly use e-mail to exchange sensitive information. To help secure this information, organizations can use Information Rights Management (IRM) to apply persistent protection to messaging content. Prior to Microsoft Exchange Server 2010, effective use of IRM protection was limited to Outlook clients. In Exchange Server 2007, Microsoft Outlook Web Access users were required to download the Rights Management add-in for Microsoft Internet Explorer so they could access IRM-protected content.
In Exchange 2013, IRM in Outlook Web App allows your users to access the rich IRM functionality offered by Exchange to apply persistent IRM-protection to messaging content. Reference: Information Rights Management in Outlook Web App
Reference: Add the Federation Mailbox to the AD RMS Super Users Group

QUESTION 49
You plan to deploy 20 Client Access servers that will have Exchange Server 2013 installed.
You need to prepare the certificate required for the planned deployment. The solution must ensure that the same certificate can be used on all of the Client Access servers.
What should you do first?

A.    On one of the Client Access servers, run the New-ExchangeCertificate cmdlet and specify the privatekey
exportable parameter.
B.    On all of the Client Access servers, run the Get-ExchangeCertificate cmdiet.
C.    On one of the Client Access servers, run the New-ExchangeCertificate cmdiet and specify the binaryencoded
parameter.
D.    On one of the Client Access servers, start the Certificates console and run the Certificate Import Wizard.

Answer: A
Explanation:
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa998327%28v=exchg.150%29.aspx

QUESTION 50
Contoso, Ltd., and Fabnkam, Inc., are partner companies.
Each company has an Exchange Server 2013 organization in a data center that is connected to the Internet. All of the Exchange servers in both of the organizations have the Client Access server role and the Mailbox role installed.
The data centers connect to each other by using a redundant high-speed WAN link.
The following mail exchanger (MX) records are configured:
– Contoso.com MX 10 mail.contoso.com
– Fabrikam.com MX 10 mail.fabrikam.com
You need to recommend a solution for inbound mail flow.
The solution must meet the following requirements:
– Users in both companies must receive email from the Internet if either of the Internet links fails.
– Mail from the Internet to contoso.com must be received by mail.contoso.com if the Internet link at the Contoso data center is available.
– Mail from the Internet to fabrikam.com must be received by mail.fabrikam.com if the Internet link at the Fabrikam data center is available.
Which two actions should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Create the following DNS records:
Contoso.com MX 20 mail.fabrikam.com
Fabrikam.com MX 20 mail.contoso.com
B.    Create the following DNS records:
Contoso.com MX 10 mail.fabrikam.com
Fabrikam.com MX 10 mail.contoso.com
C.    For each organization, configure an internal relay domain and a Send connector.
D.    For each organization, configure an external relay domain and a Receive connector.
E.    Create the following DNS records:
Contoso.com MX 5 mail.fabrikam.com
Fabrikam.com MX 5 mail.contoso.com

Answer: AC
Explanation:
A: Use a priority above 10.
C:
* When you configure an internal relay domain, some or all of the recipients in this domain don’t have mailboxes in this Exchange organization. Mail from the Internet is relayed for this domain through Transport servers in this Exchange organization.
* An organization may have to share the same SMTP address space between two or more different messaging systems. For example, you may have to share the SMTP address space between Exchange and a third-party messaging system, or between Exchange environments that are configured in different Active Directory forests. In these scenarios, users in each email system have the same domain suffix as part of their email addresses. To support these scenarios, you need to create an accepted domain that’s configured as an internal relay domain. You also need to add a Send connector that’s sourced on a Mailbox server and configured to send email to the shared address space. If an accepted domain is configured as authoritative and a recipient isn’t found in Active Directory, a non- delivery report (NDR) is returned to the sender. The accepted domain that’s configured as an internal relay domain first tries to deliver to a recipient in the Exchange organization. If the recipient isn’t found, the message is routed to the Send connector that has the closest address space match.
Incorrect:
D: When you configure an external relay domain, messages are relayed to an email server that’s outside your Exchange organization and outside the organization’s network perimeter.

If you want to 100% pass the Microsoft 70-342 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latest Microsoft 70-342 Dump full version.

2014 Latest Microsoft 70-342 Dump Free Download(31-40)!

QUESTION 31
Drag and Drop Question
You need to recommend a solution that supports the planned changes for the public folders.
Which four cmdlets should you recommend running in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate four cmdlets from the list of cmdlets to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
 clip_image002[36]
Answer:
 clip_image002[38]

QUESTION 32
You need to recommend a solution that meets the compliance requirements for email messages that contain information about the Fabrikam acquisition.
Which three actions should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)

A.    Create an Outlook protection rule.
B.    Create a new custom message classification.
C.    Modify the registry on all client computers.
D.    Modify the Content Filtering settings.
E.    Export the Message Classification configuration to an .xml file.

Answer: BCE
Explanation:
B: Use the New-MessageClassification cmdlet to create a message classification instance in your organization.
E: After you create a new message classification, you can specify the message classification as a transport rule predicate. Before Microsoft Outlook and Outlook Web App users can apply the message classification to messages, you must update the end-user systems with the message classification XML file created by the Export- OutlookClassification.ps1 script file. The Export-OutlookClassification.ps1 script file is located in the %ExchangeInstallPath%Scripts directory.
C: Microsoft Office Outlook requires a local file (Classifications.xml) that contains definitions of the message classifications that Microsoft Exchange Server supports before Outlook users can apply message classifications to their messages. You must also create a registry key that enables message classification and references the Classifications.xml file on the Outlook user’s computer.
* From scenario:
Compliance Requirements include:
Users must use a custom message classification when they send email messages that contain information about the planned acquisition of Fabrikam.

QUESTION 33
You need to implement a solution that meets the collaboration requirements.
What should you do?

A.    Run the Set-CASMailbox cmdlet.
B.    Create an organization relationship.
C.    Create a new sharing policy.
D.    Modify the organization configuration.

Answer: D
Explanation:
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd876946(v=exchg.150).aspx

QUESTION 34
Hotspot Question
You need to configure the Exchange Server UM dial plan for the planned integration of UM and Lync Server.
How should you configure the UM dial plan? (To answer, select the appropriate dial plan type and VoIP security mode in the answer area.)

 clip_image001[16]
Answer:
 clip_image001[18]

QUESTION 35
Hotspot Question
You are attempting to resolve the email delivery issue for Fabrikam.
You need to identify which certificate is being used by the servers in the Exchange Server organization of Fabrikam.
In which directory on EX1 should you review the log files? (To answer, select the appropriate directory in the answer area.)
 clip_image002[40]
Answer:
 clip_image001[20]

QUESTION 36
Drag and Drop Question
You restore the files of DB3 to EX3.
You need to mount DB3 on EX3. The solution must ensure that email messages sent to the users of DB3 while the database was offline are delivered once DB3 is mounted.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate three actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
 clip_image001[22]
Answer:
 clip_image002[42]

QUESTION 37
You need to implement a solution that meets the compliance requirements for the members of the legal department.
Which two cmdlets should you use? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    New-RoleAssignmentPolicy
B.    Add-ManagementRoleEntry
C.    New-ManagementRole Assignment
D.    New-ManagementRole
E.    New-ManagementScope

Answer: AC
Explanation:
No need to create a new management role, it already exists in Exchange 2013.

Case Study 4: Proseware, Inc (QUESTION 38 ~ QUESTION 47)
Overview
General Overview
Proseware, Inc., is an international manufacturing company that has 1,000 users. Proseware has a sales department, a marketing department, a research department, and a human resources department. Proseware purchases another company named Contoso, Ltd. Contoso has 500 users.
Physical Locations
Proseware has two main offices located in New York and London.
The offices connect to each other by using a WAN link. Each office connects directly to the Internet.
Contoso has a single office in Dallas.
Existing Environment
Active Directory Environment
The Proseware network contains an Active Directory forest named proseware.com. The forest contains a single domain. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012.
Each office contains three domain controllers. Each office is configured as an Active Directory site.
The Contoso network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a single domain. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012.
Exchange Server Organization
Proseware has an Exchange Server 2013 organization that contains four servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
 clip_image001[24]
EX3 and EX4 are the members of a database availability group (DAG) named DAG1. DAG1 has two DAG networks. The networks are configured as shown in the following table.
 clip_image001[26]
Users connect to mail.proseware.com for Microsoft Outlook and Outlook Web App services. Mail.proseware.com resolves to an IP address on a hardware load balancer. All Outlook Anywhere users are enabled for Cached Exchange Mode.
Proseware pilots a hybrid deployment of Exchange Server 2013 and Microsoft Office 365. The mailbox of each pilot user is moved to Office 365. For the pilot mailboxes, all inbound email messages from the Internet are delivered to the Exchange Server organization, and then forwarded to Office 365.
Contoso has an Exchange Server 2010 organization.
Problem Statements
Proseware identifies the following issues:
– MapiNet is saturated with network traffic caused by the database replication between the members of DAG1 over MapiNet.
– The pilot users report that entries added to their Safe Senders list and their Blocked Senders list
fail to work.
– A recent power outage in the New York office prevents all users from accessing their mailbox.
– A user named User1 reports that email messages are being sent from her mailbox without her consent.
Requirements
Planned Changes
Proseware plans to implement the following changes:
– Several users at Contoso will use a mailbox at Proseware as their primary mailbox. The Contoso users will use Autodiscover to configure their client settings and will use single sign-on.
– For a special project, an IT administrator will create 20 distribution groups that will each contain 200 members.
– Certain users in both companies will have a ©contoso.com SMTP suffix as their primary email address.
Technical Requirements
Proseware identifies the following technical requirements for the Exchange Server organization:
– Internal email messages must be rejected if the messages cannot be protected by using Shadow Redundancy.
– All database replication between DAG1 members must occur over the Rep1Net network.
Site Resiliency Requirements
Proseware identifies the following site resiliency requirements for the Exchange Server organization:
– All mailboxes must be available if a single site becomes unavailable. The solution must not require administrator intervention.
– User traffic on the WAN links must be minimized.
Email Security Requirements
Proseware identifies the following requirements for securing email messages:
– Email recipients must be able to identify whether an email message was modified during delivery.
– All email messages stored in the mailbox databases must be protected from theft.
– Users must be able to encrypt email messages from Outlook Web App.
Retention Requirements
Proseware plans to reduce mailbox server storage usage and to limit company liability. Proseware identifies the following requirements:
– Email messages in the Deleted Items folder must be retained for only 30 days.
– Email messages in a mailbox folder named Projects must be retained for 540 days, unless the messages contain contractual information.
– Email messages in the Projects folder that contain contractual information must be retained indefinitely.
– All other email messages must be removed after one year.

QUESTION 38
Drag and Drop Question
You need to resolve the network traffic issue for MapiNet. You suspend database replication.
Which three cmdlets should you run next in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate three cmdlets from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
 clip_image002[44]
Answer:
 clip_image002[46]

QUESTION 39
Drag and Drop Question
You are preparing the environment for the planned retention solution.
You need to identify which policy tags must be created to meet the retention requirements.
Which policy tag types should you identify? (To answer, drag the appropriate policy tag types to the correct message types. Each policy tag tag may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
 clip_image002[48]
Answer:
 clip_image002[50]

QUESTION 40
Drag and Drop Question
You need to implement UM for the sales department users.
Which four commands should you run in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate four commands from the list of commands to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
 clip_image002[52]
Answer:
 clip_image002[54]

If you want to 100% pass the Microsoft 70-342 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latest Microsoft 70-342 Dump full version.

2014 Latest Microsoft 70-342 Dump Free Download(21-30)!

QUESTION 21
Drag and Drop Question
You need to recommend which tasks must be performed to meet the compliance requirement for the marketing department.
Which three actions should recommend?
To answer, move the three appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
 clip_image002[10]
Answer:
 clip_image002[12]

QUESTION 22
Drag and Drop Question
You need to create a federation trust for the planned organization relationship.
Which three actions should you perform?
To answer, move the three appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
 clip_image002[14]
Answer:
 clip_image002[16]

QUESTION 23
You need to identify which technologies must be deployed to meet the Office 365 coexistence requirements.
Which two technologies should you identify? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    The Microsoft Online Services Directory Synchronization tool
B.    Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) 2.0
C.    Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS)
D.    An internal root CA
E.    Active Directory Lightweight Directory Services (AD LDS)

Answer: AB

QUESTION 24
You implement the UM pilot. You capture and analyze a network trace from the IP-PBX. You discover that SIP/MTLS requests for TCP 5061 to EX1 are dropped. You need to ensure that the IP-PBX can route calls successfully to the Exchange Server 2013 organization. What should you do?

A.    Modify the IP-PBX to route calls to EX5 and EX6.
B.    Modify the port used on the IP-PBX.
C.    Deploy a server that has Exchange Server 2010 and the Unified Messaging server role installed.
D.    Modify the SIP listening port on EX1.

Answer: A
Explanation:
CAS not MBX listen 5061 TCP port:
 clip_image002[18]
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa998872%28v=exchg.150%29.aspx

QUESTION 25
Drag and Drop Question
The Montreal data center experiences a power failure. You need to ensure that all the users can access their mailbox. Which three actions should you perform? To answer, move the three appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
 clip_image002[20]
Answer:
 clip_image002[22]
QUESTION 26
You need to recommend which tasks must be performed to meet the security requirements for Tailspin Toys.
Which two tasks should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Run the set-transportserver -transportsyncenabled $true command.
B.    Run the set-transportconfig -tsreceivedomainsecurelist tailspintoys.com command.
C.    Run the set-transportservice -transportsyncenabled $true command.
D.    Create a new Receive connector.
E.    Create a new Send connector.

Answer: BD
Explanation:
http://dizdarevic.ba/ddamirblog/?p=78

QUESTION 27
Drag and Drop Question
You need to implement a solution to meet the security requirement for the temporary employees.
You deploy an Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS) cluster, and then you run the Set-IRMConfiguration cmdlet.
Which three actions should you perform?
To answer, move the three appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
 clip_image002[24]
Answer:
 clip_image002[26]

Case Study 3: Trey Research (QUESTION 28 ~ QUESTION 37)
Overview General
Overview
Trey Research is a brokerage firm that has 5,000 users. Trey Research has a finance department, a human resources department, an investment department, and a legal department.
Trey Research is acquiring a partner company named Fabrikam, Inc.
Physical Locations
Trey Research has four main offices located in Boston, Chicago, New York, and Atlanta. The offices connect to each other by using a WAN link. The Chicago office connects directly to the Internet.
Existing Environment
Network Environment
Trey Research has an Active Directory forest named treyresearch.com. The forest contains a single domain. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012.
Each office is configured as an Active Directory site.
All user accounts are in an organizational unit (OU) based on their department. All users are in a universal security group based on their department.
Trey Research has a Lync Server 2013 infrastructure. The infrastructure is configured to required encryption for voice traffic.
Exchange Server Organization
Trey Research has an Exchange Server organization that contains five servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
 clip_image001[8]
The mailbox databases are mounted on the Exchange servers shown in the following table.
 clip_image001[10]
All of the mailboxes of the users in the executives department are mounted on DB3. A public
folder database named PF1 is mounted on EX5. The Exchange Server organization has the
following configurations:
– Users in the legal department use a shared mailbox named Legal. Legal is enabled for In-Place Hold. Legal is the only mailbox on DB2.
– All inbound and outbound email messages to and from the Internet are routed through EX1.
– Email messages sent and received by Fabrikam are secured by using Mutual TLS.
– All public folders are stored in PF1.
All users connect to their mailbox by using Microsoft Outlook 2013 and Outlook Web App. Fabrikam has an Exchange Server 2013 organization.
Problem Statements
Trey Research identifies the following issues:
– After a change to a certificate, users report that email messages sent to Fabrikam are not delivered.
– The storage for DB3 fails. The storage will be offline for the next two days.
Requirements
Planned Changes
Trey Research plans to implement the following changes:
– Move all public folders to an Exchange Server 2013 server. The solution must ensure that all users cannot modify the public folders stored on EX5 after the planned move.
– Integrate Unified Messaging (UM) services with the Lync Server 2013 infrastructure.
Collaboration Requirements
Custom recipient MailTips created in the Exchange Server organization of Trey Research must be visible to the users at Fabrikam. The solution must ensure that administrators can define a subset of users who can share their MailTips.
Auditing Requirements
The following actions must be audited for actions in the Legal mailbox only:
– Delegate – Purge mailbox content
– Delegate – Transfer file between folders
– Administrator – Messages sent by administrator
– Administrator – Open any content within the mailbox
Security Requirements
Trey Research identifies the following security requirements:
– Ensure that the users in the finance department can protect email messages from being altered in transit, regardless of the recipient.
– Prevent the email messages sent to the users in the human resources department from being forwarded to external recipients.
– Prevent the audio files in voice mail message marked as Private from being extracted from email messages.
– Redirect email messages that contain social security information to the legal department.
Compliance Requirements
Trey Research identifies the following compliance requirements:
– All users must be notified before they send an email message that contains any five bank account numbers to an external recipient. The users must be able to override the requirement if they have a valid business reason to send the email message.
– Users must use a custom message classification when they send email messages that contain information about the planned acquisition of Fabrikam.
– Only the users in the legal department must be able to use eDiscovery to view the contents of email messages sent by the finance department users.

QUESTION 28
Hotspot Question
You need to recommend a solution that meets the auditing requirements.
Which command should you include in the recommendation? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)
 clip_image001[12]
Answer:
 clip_image001[14]

QUESTION 29
Hotspot Question
You need to recommend a solution that meets the compliance requirements for emailing bank account numbers.
Which command should you include in the recommendation? (To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)

 clip_image002[28]
Answer:
 clip_image002[30]

QUESTION 30
Drag and Drop Question
You need to identify which technologies must be used to meet the security requirements. Which
technologies should you identify? (To answer, drag the appropriate technologies to the correct requirements. Each technology may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
 clip_image002[32]
Answer:
 clip_image002[34]

If you want to 100% pass the Microsoft 70-342 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latest Microsoft 70-342 Dump full version.

2014 Latest Microsoft 70-342 Dump Free Download(11-20)!

QUESTION 11
You need to recommend a solution to meet the compliance requirement for the legal department.
What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    A retention hold
B.    The Discovery Management management role group
C.    A litigation hold
D.    The Recipient Management management role group

Answer: B
Explanation:
Discovery management role group is capable of performing legal hold and mailbox search (both roles)
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd351080%28v=exchg.150%29.aspx

QUESTION 12
You are creating a contingency plan to be implemented if the entire New York site fails after Exchange Server 2013 is deployed.
You need to recommend which tasks must be performed to ensure that all of the users can access Outlook Web App from the Chicago site if the New York fails.
Which three actions should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)

A.    On the Client Access server in the Chicago site, set the ExternalURL of Outlook Web App to mail.adatum.com.
B.    On the Mailbox server in the Chicago site, set the ExternalURL of Outlook Web App to mail.adatum.com.
C.    Modify the host (A) record for mail.adatum.com to point to the Client Access server in the Chicago site.
D.    On the Client Access server in the Chicago site, set the internal URL of Outlook Web App to mail.adatum.local.
E.    Install the mail.adatum.com certificate and private key on the Client Access server in the Chicago site.

Answer: ACE

QUESTION 13
You need to recommend an auditing solution that meets the compliance requirements.
What should you recommend?

A.    Export the mailbox audit log.
B.    Run an administrator role group report.
C.    Run a non-owner mailbox access report.
D.    Export the administrator audit log.

Answer: D
Explanation:
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd335144%28v=exchg.150%29.aspx

QUESTION 14
You deploy a new certificate to a Client Access server.
You test the new certificate by using Outlook Anywhere from the Internet.
The test generates certificate errors.
You need to prevent the errors from reoccurring.
To which two stores should you add the root CA certificate? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    the personal store on the client computers
B.    the personal store on the Client Access server
C.    the personal store on the Mailbox servers
D.    the Trusted Root Certification Authorities store on the client computers
E.    the Trusted Root Certification Authorities store on the Client Access server
F.    the Trusted Root Certification Authorities store on the Mailbox servers

Answer: DE
Explanation:
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc754841.aspx
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd351044%28v=exchg.150%29.aspx
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc700805.aspx#XSLTsection126121120120

QUESTION 15
You need to recommend a solution to ensure that the store managers meet the compliance requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    Retention tags and retention policies
B.    Deleted item retention
C.    An in-place hold
D.    Personal archives

Answer: C
Explanation:
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ff637980%28v=exchg.150%29.aspx
 

QUESTION 16
You need to recommend a solution to ensure that during the planned migrations, all Autodiscover requests are processed by the Exchange Server 2013 Client Access servers.
What should you recommend?

A.    On the Exchange Server 2007 Client Access servers, modify the AutodiscoverServiceInternalURI.
B.    On the Exchange Server 2007 Client Access servers, modify the ExternalURL value of the Autodiscover
virtual directory.
C.    On the Exchange Server 2013 Client Access servers, modify the ExternalURL value of the Autodiscover
virtual directory.
D.    on the Exchange Server 2013 Client Access servers, modify the AutodiscoverServiceInternalURI.

Answer: A

QUESTION 17
You need to recommend a solution for the voice mail traffic. The solution must meet the technical requirements.
Which two configurations should you include in the recommendation? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    A dial plan.
B.    a server certificate
C.    a transport rule
D.    a data loss prevention (DLP) policy
E.    a call answering rule

Answer: AB
Explanation:
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb676409(v=exchg.150).aspx

QUESTION 18
Drag and Drop Question
You need to recommend a solution to meet the compliance requirements for the research department and the statutory holidays.
What should you recommend configuring?
To answer, drag the appropriate object to the correct location in the answer area. Each object may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Additionally, you may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
 clip_image002[4]
Answer:
 clip_image002[6]

QUESTION 19
Hotspot Question
You need to recommend a database availability group (DAG) design that meets the technical requirements.
Which DAG design should you recommend?
To answer, select the appropriate design in the answer area.
 clip_image001
Answer:
 clip_image001[4]

Case Study 2: Contoso Ltd (QUESTION 20 ~ QUESTION 27)
Overview General
Overview
Contoso, Ltd., is an aerospace engineering company that manufactures jet engine parts for various industries and government agencies. Contoso has an Exchange Server 2013 organization.
A partner company named Tailspin Toys has an Exchange Server 2010 organization.
Physical Locations
Contoso has two offices. The offices are located in Montreal and Chicago.
Each office contains a data center:
– The Montreal and Chicago offices connect to each other by using a direct WAN link.
– All connections to the Internet are routed through the Montreal office.
– Most of Contoso’s employees work from the Montreal office.
Existing Environment
The network of Contoso is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
 clip_image002[8]
The network of Contoso contains the following components:
– Client computers that run either Microsoft Outlook 2007 or Outlook 2010.
– Users who have a primary SMTP address that uses the contoso.com suffix.
– A retention policy that retains all email messages for 580 days and is associated to all users.
– Six servers that have Exchange Server installed.
The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
 clip_image001[6]
A data availability group (DAG) named DAG1 that contains all of the mailbox servers. EX5 is configured as the witness server for DAG1. A file server in the Chicago office is configured as an alternate witness server. DAG1 has Datacenter Activation Coordination (DAC) mode enabled.
Requirements
Planned Changes
Contoso plans to implement the following changes:
– Implement an organization relationship between Contoso and Tailspin Toys.
– Move the mailboxes of all the members of the sales department to Office 365.
– Evaluate Unified Messaging (UM) by conducting a small pilot in the Montreal office.
Security Requirements
Contoso identifies the following security requirements:
– Ensure that the data in the Exchange Server databases cannot be read if a hard disk is stolen.
– Prevent temporary employees from executing a Reply All or a Forward of any email messages they receive.
– Prevent temporary contractors from changing the configurations of the user accounts for the users in the research and development department.
– Ensure that all of the connections to Outlook Web App from the Internet use Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) protocols and Transport Layer Security (TLS) protocols.
– Secure all of the email messages from the users at Tailspin Toys to the Contoso users. Ensure that all of the messages can be secured if the certificates at Tailspin Toys are issued by a trusted third-party certification authority (CA).
Auditing Requirements
Contoso identifies the following requirements for auditing mailboxes:
– The manager of the legal department must receive a daily report by email that contains a record of all the eDiscovery mailbox searches.
– Any access to a mailbox by a service account must be excluded from the daily report.
Compliance Requirements
All of the email messages in the Sent Items folder of each user in the marketing department of Contoso must be deleted automatically after 365 days.
Office 365 Coexistence Requirements
Contoso identifies the following Office 365 coexistence requirements:
– Office 365 users must be able to access their mailbox by using their Active Directory user account in Contoso.
– On-premises users must be able to share free/busy information and calendar information with the Office 365 users.

QUESTION 20
You are evaluating the implementation of the organization relationship.
You need to recommend which tasks must be performed to ensure that the Contoso users can view the Out of Office message of the Tailspin Toys users before the Contoso users send a message to the Tailspin Toys users.
What should you recommend doing before implementing the organization relationship?

A.    Create a Policy Tip.
B.    Upgrade all of the client computers to Outlook 2010.
C.    Create a MailTip.
D.    Publish the Autodiscover service of Tailspin Toys.
E.    Create a remote domain.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Microsoft Outlook 2007 is a legacy product. Mail tips not supported.
http://blogs.technet.com/b/exchange/archive/2009/04/28/introducing-mailtips.aspx

If you want to 100% pass the Microsoft 70-342 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latest Microsoft 70-342 Dump full version.

2014 Latest Microsoft 70-342 Dump Free Download(1-10)!

QUESTION 1
You have an Exchange Server organization that contains five servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
 clip_image001
You deploy Microsoft Lync Server 2010. You need to create a Lync Server SIP Unified Messaging (UM) dial plan to enable voice integration between Lync Server and Exchange Server. Which three Exchange servers should you associate to the UM dial plans? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)

A.    Server1
B.    Server2
C.    Server3
D.    Server4
E.    Server5

Answer: ABE

QUESTION 2
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization. All user mailboxes have an In-Place Archive enabled.
You need to identify which email message types can be archived by using a retention policy. Which message type or types should you identify? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)

A.    calendar items
B.    mail items
C.    note items
D.    task items
E.    contact items

Answer: ABCD
Explanation:
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd297955%28v=exchg.150%29.aspx

QUESTION 3
You plan to deploy 20 Client Access servers that will have Exchange Server 2013 installed.
You need to prepare the certificate required for the planned deployment. The solution must ensure that the same certificate can be used on all of the Client Access servers.
What should you do first?

A.    From the Exchange Admin Center, create a new certificate request.
B.    On each Client Access server, start the Certificates console and run the Certificate Import Wizard.
C.    On all of the Client Access servers, delete the default self-signed certificates.
D.    On one of the Client Access servers, run the Remove-ExchangeCertificate cmdlet.

Answer: A
Explanation:
You can use the EAC to generate certificate requests that work with most certificate issuers.
Note:
To prevent clients from receiving errors regarding untrusted certificates, the certificate that’s used by your Exchange server must be issued by someone that the client trusts. Although most clients can be configured to trust any certificate or certificate issuer, it’s simpler to use a trusted third-party certificate on your Exchange server. This is because most clients already trust their root certificates. There are several third-party certificate issuers that offer certificates configured specifically for Exchange.

QUESTION 4
Your company has an Exchange Server 2013 organization named adatum.com.
You purchase an Office 365 subscription and configure a hybrid deployment.
All recipients have an email address that contains a SMTP suffix of adatum.com. You discover that all of the email messages sent to the Internet from users who have Office 365 mailboxes are routed through the on-premises Exchange servers.
You need to ensure that all of the email messages are sent directly to the Internet.
What should you do?

A.    Modify the Send connector.
B.    Run the Hybrid Configuration wizard.
C.    Create a new Sharing policy.
D.    Modify an organization relationship.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Creating and configuring a hybrid deployment with the Hybrid Configuration wizard is now a single process in Microsoft Exchange Server 2013.
Note:
A hybrid deployment offers organizations the ability to extend the feature-rich experience and administrative control they have with their existing on-premises Microsoft Exchange organization to the cloud. A hybrid deployment provides the seamless look and feel of a single Exchange organization between an on-premises Exchange Server 2013 organization and Exchange Online in Microsoft Office 365. In addition, a hybrid deployment can serve as an intermediate step to moving completely to an Exchange Online organization.

QUESTION 5
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization.
A user named User1 has a mailbox that is enabled for Unified Messaging (UM). User1 has nine call answering rules.
When User1 attempts to create a new call answering rule, the user receives an error message.
You need to identify what prevents User1 from creating a call answering rule.
What should you identify?

A.    The mailbox of User1 has the CallAnsweringRulesEnabled parameter set to $false
B.    The UM mailbox policy of User1 has the AllowCallAnsweringRules parameter set to $false.
C.    User1 exceeds the Inbox rules storage quota.
D.    User1 has the maximum number of call answering rules allowed.

Answer: D
Explanation:
A total of nine call answering rules can be set up for each UM-enabled mailbox.

QUESTION 6
You have an Exchange Server 2007 organization.
You deploy a new Exchange Server 2013 organization.
You plan to move all of the mailboxes to the new organization by performing a cross-forest mailbox move.
You need to recommend a solution to meet the following requirements:
– Users must be able to reply successfully to email messages they received before their mailbox moved.
– Users must be able to send email messages to internal mailboxes by using the entries in the nickname cache that existed in Microsoft Outlook before their mailbox moved.
What should you recommend doing before moving the mailboxes?

A.    Create a sharing policy and a remote domain.
B.    Create an organization relationship and a remote domain.
C.    For all of the users in the new organization, add their LegacyExchangeDN value as an x500
proxy address.
D.    For all of the users in the new organization, add their LegacyExchangeDN value as an SMTP
proxy address.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Problem:
An email is sent and a NDR is generated to the sender showing an X500 address in the recipient field. The cause of this is that Exchange uses the X500 address to route mail internally and once the attributes have been removed from a user object (or a contact was removed) and a mailbox is created for the same user, Exchange creates a new X500 address (it is the same information as before, but the last three characters are randomized to keep them unique within the system).
Resolution:
The simpliest thing to do is add a new custom email address to the user object, paste the old LegacyExchangeDN in the address field, and set the type to X500.
 clip_image002
http://russburden.files.wordpress.com/2012/06/customx500.jpg?w=595

QUESTION 7
Drag and Drop Question
Your company has two offices. The offices are located in New York and San Francisco.
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization that contains two servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
 clip_image001[12]
The organization contains four mailbox databases. The mailbox databases are configured as shown in the following table.
 clip_image001[14]
Recently, DB1 went offline because of a disk failure. The disk is restored and DB1 is mounted.
You discover that there are more than 10,000 email messages queued for delivery to DB1.
You need to preserve the messages and perform the following actions:
– Export the messages queued for delivery to a different drive.
– Clear the messages queued for delivery.
– Ensure that the messages queued for delivery to DB1 are delivered while preserving the original message header information.
– Prevent duplicate messages.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate four actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
 clip_image002[19]
Answer:
 clip_image002[21]

QUESTION 8
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization.
You successfully migrate the public folders from a previous version of Exchange Server. You discover that one of the public folder mailboxes almost reached its quota size. You need to move some of the public folders in the public folder mailbox to another public folder mailbox. What should you run?

A.    Merge PublicFolderMailbox.ps1
B.    Set-MailPublicFolder
C.    New-PublicFolderMigrationRequest
D.    New-PublicFolderMoveRequest

Answer: D
Explanation:
* If the content of a public folder mailbox begins to exceed your mailbox quotas, you may need to move public folders to a different public folder mailbox. There are a couple ways to do this. To move one or more public folders that don’t contain subfolders, you can use the PublicFolderMoveRequest cmdlets.
* Use the New-PublicFolderMoveRequest cmdlet to begin the process of moving public folder contents between public folder mailboxes. Moving public folders only moves the physical contents of the public folder; it doesn’t change the logical hierarchy. When the move request is completed, you must run the Remove-PublicFolderMoveRequest cmdlet to remove the request or wait until the time specified in the CompletedRequestAgeLimit parameter has passed. The request must be removed before you can run another move request.

QUESTION 9
Hotspot Question
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization named contoso.com.
Your company, which is named Contoso, Ltd., has a partnership with another company named Fabrikam, Inc.
Fabrikam has an Exchange Server 2013 organization. Both organizations have a federation trust to the Microsoft Federation Gateway. You need to ensure that the users at Fabrikam can see the free/busy information of the users at Contoso, including the time, the location, and the subject of appointments. Which command should you run?
(To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.)
 clip_image002[23]
Answer:
 clip_image002[25]

Case Study 1: A.Datum (QUESTION 10 ~ QUESTION 19)
Overview
General Overview
A. Datum Corporation is a pet supply company that has stores across North America.
A. Datum has an Exchange Server 2007 organization. A. Datum plans to migrate to Exchange Server 2013.
Physical Locations
A. Datum has five locations. The locations are configured as shown in the following table.
 clip_image001[16]
Existing Environment
Network Infrastructure
All of the locations connect to the each other by using a WAN link. The New York, Toronto, and Chicago locations connect directly to the Internet.
All client computers run Windows 7 and Office 2010. All servers run Windows Server 2008.
Active Directory Environment
The network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.local. Adatum.local is the corporate domain based in the United States. The network contains a domain named Canada.adatum.local. Canada.adatum.local is the domain for the stores in Canada.
Each location is configured as an Active Directory site.
The forest functional level is Windows Server 2008.
The main office and both of the distribution centers each has two domain controllers for their respective domain. All of the other locations have one domain controller for their respective domain. All of the domain controllers are global catalog servers.
Exchange Infrastructure
The main office and the distribution centers each have three servers that have Exchange Server 2007 installed.
The servers have the following configurations:
– Two of the servers have cluster continuous replication (CCR) deployed
– One of the servers has the Client Access server role and the Hub Transport server role installed
Each store contains a server that has Exchange Server 2007 installed. Each server has mailboxes for active users and mailboxes for inactive users. Each server has approximately 50 mailboxes. Remote users access Outlook Web Access by using a namespace of mail.adatum.com, which resolves to the Client Access server in the New York office.
Requirements
Planned Changes
The company plans to implement the following changes:
– Migrate all of the mailboxes in the main office and the distribution centers to Exchange Server 2013.
– Integrate a new telephone system to the Exchange Server 2013 organization.
– Deploy a standalone certification authority (CA) that will be used to issue all of the certificates for the messaging infrastructure.
Technical Requirements
The company identifies the following technical requirements:
– Hardware costs must be minimized whenever possible.
– The impact on end users if a site fails must be minimized.
– Voice mail traffic between the telephone system and the Exchange Server environment must be encrypted.
– Each user must be able to access the internal resources and their mailbox by using a single user account.
Compliance Requirements
After a security review, the company identifies the following compliance requirements for the new Exchange Server environment:
– All administrative changes made to the mailboxes must be tracked.
– The legal department must be able to search for messages in all of the mailboxes.
– Users must be prevented from sending email during an upcoming statutory holiday.
– All store managers must be prevented from permanently deleting email messages from their Inbox.
– All email messages must be archived for a minimum of five years to meet regulatory requirements.
– Management occasionally sends the staff internal memos that contain confidential information, such as sales figures. The memos must be protected so that unauthorized users cannot read the memos and internal users cannot forward the memos to external recipients.
– The users in the research department must be able to send email to anyone in the organization, but only the members of a group named Execs must be able to send email to the research users. All other users must be notified that email sent to the research users will remain undelivered.

QUESTION 10
You need to recommend a solution for the memos. The solution must meet the compliance requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions (S/MIME)
B.    Information Rights Management (IRM)
C.    Domain Security
D.    Data loss prevention (DLP) policies

Answer: B
Explanation:
IRM also helps allow or restrict recipient actions such as forwarding a message to other recipients, printing a message or attachment, or extracting message or attachment content by copying and pasting.
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd638140%28v=exchg.150%29.aspx

If you want to 100% pass the Microsoft 70-342 Exam sucessfully, recommend to read latest Microsoft 70-342 Dump full version.

Pages: 1 2 ... 248 249 250 251 252 253 254 255