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QUESTION 1
You need to generate a report on all of the Exchange Server 2007 computers in your Exchange organization. The report must include:
– Operating system versionNumber of processors
– Total physical memory
– Number of storage groups
– Number of mailbox databases
What should you do?

A.    Run the Get-ExchangeServer | Format-List cmdlet.
B.    Run the Get-OrganizationConfig cmdlet.
C.    Run the Test-SystemHealth cmdlet.
D.    Run the Health Check scan in the Exchange Best Practices Analyzer.

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
After a brief network outage, your monitoring system alerts you that a significant number of SMTP queues on your Hub Transport server are in a retry status. You need to force the Hub Transport
server to send the queued e-mail immediately. Which cmdlet should you run?

A.    Retry-queue -filter {status -eq “retry”}
B.    Retry-queue -filter {status -eq “suspended”}
C.    Resume-queue -filter {status -eq “retry”}
D.    Resume-queue -filter {status -eq “suspended”}

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Some of your companys mobile sales representatives use portable computers that run Microsoft Office Outlook 2007 and are configured to connect to your Exchange Server 2007 organization by using Outlook Anywhere. You need to monitor your environment to verify that these mobile users are able to connect to the Exchange organization, and that performance meets or exceeds the company standard. Which two cmdlets should you run? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Test-MAPIConnectivity
B.    Test-OutlookWebServices
C.    Test-WebServicesConnectivity
D.    Test-ServiceHealth
E.    Get-MailboxStatistics

Answer: AC

QUESTION 4
The servers in your Exchange Server 2007 environment are configured as shown in the following table.
 clip_image001[16]
Internal users report that they are not receiving external e-mail. You use the Exchange Queue Viewer on your desktop computer to investigate the problem. You do not see any messages in the queue.
You need to be able to view the undelivered messages.
What should you do?

A.    Open the Queue Viewer on Server2.
B.    Run the Get-Queue -Identity Server3 cmdlet.
C.    Modify the Refresh interval (seconds) option in Queue Viewer.
D.    Modify the Number of items to display per page option in Queue Viewer.

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Your native Exchange Server 2007 organization contains 10 Exchange servers. The roles on these servers are configured as shown in the following table.
 clip_image001[18]
You need to generate a single report that indicates the number of disconnected mailboxes in your environment and how much storage space these mailboxes consume. You need to export the report to a file.
What should you do?

A.    Run the Get-MailboxServer | Get-MailboxStatistics | Where {$_.DisconnectDate -ne $null} | Export-Csv -Path c:\tmp\disconnect.csv cmdlet.
B.    Run the Get-Mailbox | Get-MailboxStatistics | Where {$_.DisconnectDate -ne $null} | Export-Csv -Path c:\tmp\disconnect.csv cmdlet.
C.    Run the Get-Recipient -RecipientType MailboxUser | Export-Csv -Path c:\tmp\disconnect.csv cmdlet. Then, open disconnect.csv and remove all entries for active mailboxes.
D.    In the Exchange Management Console, expand the Recipient Configuration work center and select the Disconnected Mailbox node.

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
You want to gather information about user connectivity on an Exchange Server 2007 Mailbox server named Exch1. You need to generate a report of all Exch1 mailboxes that displays the latest user logon time. What should you do?

A.    In Performance Monitor, add the Active Client Logons counter with _Total instances from the MSExchangeIS Mailbox object.
B.    Run the Get-Mailbox -Server Exch1 cmdlet.
C.    Run the Get-MailboxStatistics -Server Exch1 cmdlet.
D.    Run the Get-LogonStatistics -Server Exch1 cmdlet.

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Your Exchange Server 2007 organization has three Exchange servers, as shown in the following table.
 clip_image001[20]
A user in your Exchange organization sends a message to a recipient outside of your company. The recipients address is marc@contoso.com, and Latest Sales Figures is the subject of the message. Your user reports that the message has not been delivered. You need to find out whether the message has left your Exchange organization. Which cmdlet should you run on the Hub Transport server?

A.    Get-Recipient -Filter {PrimarySmtpAddress -eq “marc@contoso.com”}
B.    Get-Message -Filter {Subject -eq “Latest Sales Figures”}
C.    Get-Queue -Filter {NextHopDomain -eq “contoso.com”}
D.    Get-queue -Filter {status -eq “retry”}

Answer: B

QUESTION 8
You need to find out the total size of a users mailbox. What should you do?

A.    Run the Database Troubleshooter in the Exchange Troubleshooting Assistant.
B.    Run the Get-MailboxDatabase cmdlet.
C.    Run the Get-MailboxStatistics cmdlet.
D.    Run the Get-Mailbox cmdlet.

Answer: C

QUESTION 9
You have an Exchange Server 2007 environment. You need to create a performance baseline report. What should you do?

A.    In the Exchange Best Practices Analyzer, run the Health Check scan.
B.    In the Exchange Best Practices Analyzer, run the Connectivity Test scan.
C.    In the Exchange Best Practices Analyzer, run the Exchange 2007 Readiness Check scan.
D.    Use the Performance Troubleshooter tool.

Answer: A

QUESTION 10
The Hub Transport server role resides on an Exchange Server 2007 computer named ExchHub1. Message tracking is enabled. Written company privacy policy states that the subject line of e-mail messages should not be stored in the tracking log. You need to track e-mail messages from ExchHub1 while complying with company policy. Which cmdlet should you run?

A.    Set-TransportServer ExchHub1 -MessageTrackingLogEnabled:$false
B.    Set-TransportServer ExchHub1 MessageTrackingLogSubjectLoggingEnabled:$false
C.    Set-ReceiveConnector -ProtocolLoggingLevel None
D.    Get-MessageTrackingLog -Subject None

Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Your Exchange Server 2007 organization contains two Exchange servers. The roles on the two servers are configured as shown in the following table.
 clip_image001[22]
Two users named Marc and Maria have mailboxes on ExchMb1. Marcs computer is on segment A. Marias computer is on segment B. The Exchange servers are on segment C. Marc sends a message to Maria. The message leaves Marcs Outbox and is listed in his Sent Items folder. However, the message is never delivered to Maria’s mailbox. You need to find out the most likely cause of the problem.
What should you do?

A.    On ExchMb1, run the Test-ServiceHealth cmdlet.
B.    On ExchHub1, run the Test-ServiceHealth cmdlet.
C.    On ExchMb1, run the Test-MAPIConnectivity -Server ExchMb1 cmdlet.
D.    On a computer on segment A, run the Test-MAPIConnectivity -Server ExchMb1 cmdlet.

Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Your environment consists of servers that have either Exchange Server 2007 or Exchange Server 2003 installed. You create a policy to restrict the number of recipients that are allowed per message. You need to ensure that the policy is enforced for all users. What should you do?

A.    Set organizational limits.
B.    Set server limits.
C.    Set global limits.
D.    Set connector limits.

Answer: C

QUESTION 13
You are preparing to configure e-mail retention on three managed custom folders for all mailboxes on an Exchange Server 2007 computer named Exch1.
You perform the following actions.
Create three managed custom folders.
Create managed content settings for each folder, and configure the required retention settings. Create a new managed folder mailbox policy named MailRet. Add each managed custom folder to the MailRet policy.
Configure the managed folder assistant for Exch1.
You need to finish configuring the messaging records management (MRM) retention settings so that the three folders are available for the mailboxes on Exch1.
What should you do?

A.    For each mailbox on Exch1, select the Enable retention hold for items in this mailbox check box.
B.    For each mailbox on Exch1, add the MailRet policy.
C.    Add managed content settings to the three managed custom folders.
D.    Create a new managed folder mailbox policy for each of the three managed custom folders.

Answer: B

QUESTION 14
A new virus is discovered in your Exchange Server 2007 organization. The file extension is .ext for this virus. The current settings for attachment filtering are configured to delete specified attachments and allow the message to be delivered. However, the virus files are not being filtered. You must stop the spread of this new virus. Neither the attachment nor the e-mail message should reach the e-mail recipient. The message that contains the virus should not generate a non-delivery report (NDR). You need to add a filter for the file extension of the virus. Which two cmdlets should you run? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Add-AttachmentFilterEntry -Name *.ext -type ContentType
B.    Add-AttachmentFilterEntry -Name *.ext -type FileName
C.    Set-AttachmentFilterListConfig -Action Reject -RejectMessage “None”
D.    Set-AttachmentFilterListConfig -Action SilentDelete

Answer: BD

QUESTION 15
Your company has five Active Directory sites that are configured as shown in the exhibit.
(Click the Exhibit button.)
Each site has an Exchange Server 2007 Mailbox server and Hub Transport server. Currently all outbound e-mail traffic goes through the New York site. You need to reconfigure the mail flow so that all outbound e-mail messages that are sent from users in the Seattle office are sent out of your Exchange organization through ExchHub5 in the Chicago office.
Which cmdlet should you run?
 clip_image002

A.    Set-AdsiteLink -Id DNVR-CHI -ADCost 5
B.    Set-AdSite -Identity Chicago -HubSiteEnabled:$true
C.    New-SendConnector -Name ‘Chicago’ -AddressSpaces:’smtp:*;1′ -DNSRoutingEnabled:$true -SourceTransportServers:’ExchHub5′
D.    Set-SendConnector -Identity ‘Seattle’ -AddressSpaces:’smtp:*;1′ -DNSRoutingEnabled:$false -SourceTransportServers:’ExchHub1′

Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Your companys Microsoft ActiveSync policy is configured to require inactive users to provide their password every 10 minutes. A company executive requests that her mobile device be exempt from the inactivity timer. You need to exempt the executives mobile device from the timeout policy while maintaining the other corporate policy settings. What should you do?

A.    Remove the corporate ActiveSync policy from the executives mailbox.
B.    Create a new ActiveSync policy that has the required settings, and apply it to the executives mailbox.
C.    Change the password setting on the executives mobile device to override the ActiveSync policy.
D.    Reconfigure the executives mobile device for ActiveSync, and do not apply the corporate ActiveSync policy.

Answer: B

QUESTION 17
You need to configure a public folder to replicate on only Saturdays and Sundays. You also need to ensure that posts will be denied after the folders size reaches 500 MB. Which cmdlet should you run for the public folder?

A.    Set-PublicFolder -StorageQuota 500MB -ReplicationSchedule “Saturday.12:00 AM-Sunday.11:59 PM”
B.    Set-PublicFolder -PostStorageQuota 500MB -ReplicationSchedule “Saturday.12:00 AM-Sunday.11:59 PM”
C.    Set-PublicFolder -MaxItemSize 500MB -ReplicationSchedule “Saturday.12:00 AM-Sunday.11:59 PM”
D.    Set-PublicFolder -PostStorageQuota 500MB -UseDatabaseRetentionDefaults: $true

Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Your company normally does not allow out-of-office messages to be sent to users outside of your Exchange 2007 organization. The company makes an exception for a business partner named Northwind Traders. The SMTP domain for Northwind Traders is northwindtraders.com. You need to configure your Exchange organization to allow out-of-office messages to be sent to e-mail addresses in the northwindtraders.com domain. What should you do?

A.    Add northwindtraders.com as a remote domain and set the appropriate options.
B.    Add northwindtraders.com as an accepted domain and set the appropriate options.
C.    Create a transport rule and set the appropriate options.
D.    Create a Send connector for northwindtraders.com and set the appropriate options.

Answer: A

QUESTION 19
You are preparing to configure Outlook Anywhere on your existing Exchange Server 2007 organization. A Mailbox server named ExchMb1 contains all of the mailboxes that will be accessed by users who use Outlook Anywhere. A Client Access server named ExchCas1 is available from the Internet. Users will access Outlook Anywhere with mail.contoso.com as the host (A) name. You need to configure the Exchange organization so that Outlook Anywhere can be used by Microsoft Office Outlook clients from the Internet. Which three actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)

A.    Install RPC over HTTP Proxy on ExchCas1.
B.    Install a valid SSL certificate for ExchMb1 on the default Web site.
C.    Install a valid SSL certificate for ExchCas1 on the default Web site.
D.    Install RPC over HTTP Proxy on ExchMb1.
E.    Run the Enable-OutlookAnywhere -Server:ExchCas1 -ExternalHostName:mail.contoso.com -SSLOffLoading:$false -ExternalAuthenticationMethod:Basic cmdlet.
F.    Run the Enable-OutlookAnywhere -Server:ExchMb1 -ExternalHostName:mail.contoso.com -SSLOffLoading:$true -ExternalAuthenticationMethod:Basic cmdlet.

Answer: ACE
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QUESTION 1
When attempting to send a file to another user securely with GPG, which of the following actions must be done?

A.    Encrypt the file using your public key.
B.    Encrypt the file using their public key.
C.    Encrypt the file using your private key.
D.    Encrypt the file using their private key.
E.    Sign the file with your public key.

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
In xorg.conf, which of the following sections is concerned with fonts?

A.    The Fonts section
B.    The Files section
C.    The xfsCodes section
D.    The Graphics section
E.    The modeline section

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which of the following outputs will the below command sequence produce? echo ‘1 2 3 4 5 6’ | while read a b c; do echo result: $c $b $a; done

A.    result: 3 4 5 6 2 1
B.    result: 1 2 3 4 5 6
C.    result: 6 5 4
D.    result: 6 5 4 3 2 1
E.    result: 3 2 1

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
X is running okay but an administrator is concerned that the correct color depth set is not configured. Which of the following commands will show the administrator the running color depth while in X?

A.    xcd
B.    xcdepth
C.    xwininfo
D.    xcolordepth
E.    cat /etc/X11

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which of the following words is used to restrict the records that are returned from a SELECT query based on supplied criteria for the values in the records?

A.    LIMIT
B.    FROM
C.    WHERE
D.    IF

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which of the following outputs will the command seq 10 produce?

A.    A continuous stream of numbers increasing in increments of 10 until stopped.
B.    The numbers 1 through 10 with one number per line.
C.    The numbers 0 though 9 with one number per line.
D.    The number 10 to standard output.

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which of the following is the purpose of the Sticky Keys feature in X?

A.    To assist users who have difficulty holding down multiple keys at once
B.    To prevent repeated input of a single character if the key is held down
C.    To ignore brief keystrokes according to a specified time limit
D.    To repeat the input of a single character

Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which of the following commands can be used to activate a specific network interface?

A.    ipup
B.    net
C.    ifup
D.    netup

Answer: C

QUESTION 9
An administrator is looking into a new script that they have just received from a senior administrator. In the very first line the administrator notices a #! followed by a path to a binary.
Linux will:

A.    ignore the script.
B.    use that binary to interpret the script.
C.    use that binary to compile the script.
D.    be replaced by that binary.

Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which of the following commands should be used to print a listing of emails in the system’s mail queue?

A.    sendmail -l
B.    lpq
C.    mailq
D.    mlq

Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Each entry in a crontab must end with which of the following characters?

A.    tab
B.    space
C.    backslash
D.    newline

Answer: D

QUESTION 12
A department decided to change the Gnome Display Manager’s greeting. Which of the following configuration files should an administrator edit?

A.    /etc/gnome/greeting
B.    /opt/gnome/share/greeting
C.    /etc/X11/gmd.conf
D.    /etc/X11/gdm/Init/Default

Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which of the following are commonly used Mail Transfer Agent (MTA) applications? (Select THREE).

A.    postfix
B.    procmail
C.    sendmail
D.    exim
E.    smtpd

Answer: ACD

QUESTION 14
On a dual boot system, every time the system is booted back into Linux the time has been set backward by two hours. Which of the following commands will correct the problem so it will not occur again?

A.    ntpdate pool.ntp.org
B.    date -d ‘two hours’
C.    hwclock –hctosys –localtime
D.    time hwclock

Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Which of the following files, when using Sendmail or a similar MTA system, will allow a user to redirect all their mail to another address and is configurable by the user themselves?

A.    /etc/alias
B.    /etc/mail/forwarders
C.    ~/.alias
D.    ~/.forward

Answer: D
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QUESTION 1
An administrator is attempting to recover corrupted data from a four disk RAID group. However, the administrator does not know which RAID level was used. When investigating the volumes, the administrator notes that there is a duplicate of all data on two of the disks. Which of the following RAID levels was in use?

A.    RAID 0
B.    RAID 5
C.    RAID 6
D.    RAID 10

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Given an array with sixteen 300GB drives, a storage administrator needs to know how much raw usable space can be made available while still maintaining a highly available RAID configuration with two hot spares. Which of the following is the MAXIMUM capacity that can be allocated and at which RAID level?

A.    2.1TB, RAID 1
B.    3.6TB, RAID 6
C.    3.9TB, RAID 5
D.    4.8TB, RAID 0

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
When gathering simple baseline statistics for a storage array, a storage administrator should gather which of the following? (Select TWO).

A.    Read/Write errors
B.    Number of switches connected
C.    Reads/Writes performed
D.    Read/Write throughput
E.    Port loss of signal counts

Answer: CD

QUESTION 4
A server has dual power supplies, dual mirrored hard drives, multi-pathed multiple NICs, and a dual port HBA for access into a SAN. Which of the following components is a single point of failure?

A.    Power supplies
B.    HBA
C.    NICs
D.    System hard drives

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
A new storage array is being cabled into a rack. The array has dual controllers, each disk tray has dual power supplies, and there are two in-rack PDUs (C and D). Which of the following is the BEST method for hooking up power?

A.    Connect controller A’s PSUs to PDU C, controller B’s PSUs to D, alternate drive trays between PDUs C and D.
B.    Connect all drive tray PSUs to C and all controller PDUs to D.
C.    Connect both controller’s PSUs to C and all drive tray PSUs to D.
D.    Split all PSU connections between C and D equally.

Answer: D

QUESTION 6
An administrator needs to assign LUN IDs for two new LUNs from the same storage array. The
first LUN is being presented as LUN 0 to multiple hosts. The second LUN is being dedicated to a single server which is also included in the group of hosts LUN 0 is presented to. Which of the following is the LOWEST LUN ID that can be assigned to the second LUN?

A.    0
B.    1
C.    2
D.    16

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
In a direct current only datacenter, which of the following is the MOST important rack installation concern?

A.    Sufficient power capacity
B.    Adequate division of circuits
C.    Adequate humidity control
D.    Grounding of all components

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which of the following are the MOST important properties to remember when replacing a faulty SFP? (Select TWO).

A.    SFP TX power
B.    Distance rating
C.    Port speed
D.    SFP RX power
E.    Driver version

Answer: BC

QUESTION 9
Which of the following is the MOST important item a storage administrator should check FIRST for a successful fabric merge?

A.    Faulty SFPs in the switch
B.    Number of aliases in the zoning database
C.    Domain IDs
D.    Total number of ports in the combined fabric

Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which of the following protocols transmits a password in clear text on the network during the login process?

A.    SFTP
B.    SSH
C.    Telnet
D.    HTTPS

Answer: C

QUESTION 11
A switch with 8Gb ports has been connected with five hosts running at 4Gb speed and two at 2Gb speed. If the switch is communicating through an ISL with another 8Gb switch where the storage array is connected, which of the following will be the oversubscription ratio of this configuration?

A.    1:1
B.    2:1
C.    3:1
D.    5:1

Answer: C

QUESTION 12
An administrator is tasked to programmatically create twenty 64GB LUNs and one 1GB LUN to be assigned to a four node cluster. Which of the following tools should be used to satisfy the request?

A.    CLI
B.    SMI-S
C.    GUI
D.    SNMP

Answer: A

QUESTION 13
A senior administrator configuring a firewall would like to know the IP address of a frequently accessed website to verify that site was not accidentally blocked in the content filter by the junior administrator’s recently-added range of blocked IP addresses. Which of the following tools would be used to find the IP address of the website?

A.    ipconfig/ifconfig
B.    nslookup
C.    netstat
D.    tracert/traceroute

Answer: B

QUESTION 14
A user reports lack of network connectivity on a laptop. No hardware changes have recently occurred on the laptop. Which of the following should the technician check FIRST?

A.    Port
B.    Cable
C.    Firewall
D.    NIC configuration

Answer: B

QUESTION 15
A small business would like to install their new storage equipment in a closet off of their pool deck. Which of the following environmental concerns should a technician consider FIRST?

A.    Fire suppression
B.    Humidity control
C.    Sufficient power
D.    Rack loading

Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which of the following RAID levels provides the BEST guarantee that data will be retained in the event of drive failure without requiring a rebuild?

A.    RAID 0
B.    RAID 1
C.    RAID 3
D.    RAID 5

Answer: B
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QUESTION 1
Which command prevents Layer 2 loops if the switch stops receiving spanning-tree keepalives on port ge-1/0/1?

A.    [edit protocols rstp]
user@switch# show
interface ge-1/0/1 {
  bpdu-block;
}
B.    [edit protocols layer2-control]
user@switch# show
interface ge-1/0/1 {
  bpdu-time-out-action {
    block;
    alarm;
  }
}
C.    [edit protocols layer2-control]
user@switch# show
bpdu-block {
  interface ge-1/0/1;
}
D.    [edit protocols rstp]
interface ge-1/0/1
{
  no-root-port;
}

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Click the Exhibit button.
 clip_image001
You are attaching into an EX Series switch-1a legacy IP phone that does not support LLDP-MED, but does allow configuration using DHCP, as shown in the exhibit.
Your existing network QoS policies dictate that VoIP traffic must traverse over VLAN 10.
Which two actions put VoIP traffic onto VLAN 10? (Choose two.)

A.    Configure protocols cdp on switch-1.
B.    Manually configure the voice VLAN on the IP phone.
C.    Configure vlan 1 under forwarding-options bootp.
D.    Configure interface ge-0/0/5 under forwarding-options bootp.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
What are three types of port designation specific to Private VLANs? (Choose three.)

A.    Promiscuous ports
B.    Transparent ports
C.    PVLAN trunk ports
D.    Designated ports
E.    Isolated ports

Answer: ACE

QUESTION 4
Click the Exhibit button.
 clip_image001[4]
Looking at the output in the exhibit, why is the BGP neighbor not in Established state?

A.    BGP Refresh is not supported.
B.    Multihop is not configured.
C.    The peer address is not reachable.
D.    Authentication is configured.

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which two statements about MVRP on EX Series switches are true? (Choose two.)

A.    MVRP can add VLANs on access interfaces.
B.    MVRP can add VLANs on trunk interfaces.
C.    MVRP adds VLANs on MVRP-enabled interfaces by default.
D.    MVRP is in transparent mode on MVRP-enabled interfaces by default.

Answer: BC

QUESTION 6
Your customer has five office locations.
Each office location has 20 VLANs configured, one for each department.
Your engineering team has recently secured a government contract with strict regulations which require that engineers be placed into separate workgroups.
These workgroups cannot communicate with each other.
Without changing the primary VLAN assignments, which JUNOS feature meets this requirement with minimal configuration?

A.    Create a series of firewall filters to block users in each workgroup.
B.    Configure a Private VLAN and assign each workgroup a secondary VLAN.
C.    Configure Virtual Private LAN Service to isolate broadcast domain.
D.    Turn off the default BUM (Broadcast, unknown, multicast) flooding mode.

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Click the Exhibit button.
 clip_image001[6]
In the exhibit, switches S1, S2, and S3 have Q-in-Q tunneling configured between Site 1 and Site 2.
Which configuration on switch S1 allows Site 1 and Site 2 to exchange Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP), but blocks VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) between Site 1 and Site 2?

A.    {master:0}[edit vlans provider-vlan]
user@S1# set dot1q-tunneling layer2-protocol-tunneling cdp
B.    {master:0}[edit vlans provider-vlan]
user@S1# set dot1q-tunneling l2tp cdp
C.    {master:0}[edit vlans provider-vlan]
user@S1# set dot1q-tunneling layer2-protocol-tunneling deny vtp
D.    {master:0}[edit vlans provider-vlan]
user@S1# set dot1q-tunneling l2tp deny vtp

Answer: A

QUESTION 8
A coffee shop offering free Internet service to customers wants to implement the following security policies:
1. Every customer must agree to a set of terms and conditions before accessing the Internet.
2. Log out customers that are logged in for more than one hour.
3. Log out customers that are idle for more than 5 minutes.
4. Authenticate employee desktop computers with known hardware addresses in the office of the coffee shop to access the Internet without the above restrictions.
The following configuration has been applied to the switch:
set access radius-server 172.16.14.26 port 1812
set access radius-server 172.16.14.26 secret Am@zingC00f33
set access profile dot1x authentication-order radius
set access profile dot1x radius authentication-server 172.27.14.226
What would you add to implement these policies?

A.    set protocols dot1x authenticator interface ge-0/0/12.0 supplicant multiple
set protocols dot1x authenticator interface ge-0/0/12.0 mac-radius
set protocols dot1x authenticator authentication-profile-name dot1x
set services captive-portal authentication-profile-name dot1x
set services captive-portal interface ge-0/0/12.0
set services captive-portal secure-authentication https
set services captive-portal custom-options header-message “Welcome to Our Coffee Shop”
set services captive-portal custom-options banner-message “Terms and Conditions of Use”
B.    set protocols dot1x authenticator interface ge-0/0/12.0 supplicant multiple
set protocols dot1x authenticator authentication-profile-name dot1x
set services captive-portal authentication-profile-name dot1x
set services captive-portal interface ge-0/0/12.0
set services captive-portal secure-authentication https
set services captive-portal custom-options header-message “Welcome to Our Coffee Shop”
set services captive-portal custom-options banner-message “Terms and Conditions of Use”
C.    set protocols dot1x authenticator interface ge-0/0/12.0 supplicant multiple
set protocols dot1x authenticator interface ge-0/0/12.0 mac-radius
set protocols dot1x authenticator authentication-profile-name dot1x
set services captive-portal authentication-profile-name dot1x
set services captive-portal interface ge-0/0/12.0
set services captive-portal interface ge-0/0/12.0 idle-timeout 300
set services captive-portal interface ge-0/0/12.0 user-timeout 3600
set services captive-portal secure-authentication https
set services captive-portal custom-options header-message “Welcome to Our Coffee Shop”
set services captive-portal custom-options banner-message “Terms and Conditions of Use”
D.    set protocols dot1x authenticator interface ge-0/0/12.0 supplicant multiple
set protocols dot1x authenticator interface ge-0/0/12.0 mac-radius
set protocols dot1x authenticator interface ge-0/0/12.0 idle-timeout 300
set protocols dot1x authenticator interface ge-0/0/12.0 user-timeout 3600
set protocols dot1x authenticator authentication-profile-name dot1x
set services captive-portal authentication-profile-name dot1x
set services captive-portal interface ge-0/0/12.0
set services captive-portal secure-authentication https
set services captive-portal custom-options header-message “Welcome to Our Coffee Shop”
set services captive-portal custom-options banner-message “Terms and Conditions of Use”

Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Click the Exhibit button.
 clip_image001[8]
In the PIM-SM network in the exhibit, all links in the topology have the same IGP metric configured.
Which link will not be on the RPT?

A.    R1-R4
B.    R3-R6
C.    R4-R5
D.    R5-R6

Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Click the Exhibit button.
 clip_image001[10]
In the exhibit, Site 1 is sending traffic on VLANs 100, 200, and 300.
The provider operating switch S1 must configure Q-in-Q tunneling to transport VLANs 100 and 200 to Site2.
The provider must configure switch S1 to block traffic received from site 1 on VLAN 300.
Which configuration accomplishes this goal?

A.    {master:0}[edit vlans pv200]
user@S1# show
vlan-id 200;
interface {
  ge-0/0/0.0;
  ge-0/0/1.0;
}
dot1q-tunneling {
  customer-vlans [ 100 200 ];
}
B.    {master:0}[edit vlans pv200]
user@S1# show
vlan-id [100 200];
interface {
  ge-0/0/0.0 {
    dot1q-tunneling {
      block-vlans 300;
    }
  }
  ge-0/0/1.0;
}
C.    {master:0}[edit vlans pv200]
user@S1# show
vlan-id 200;
interface {
  ge-0/0/0.0;
  ge-0/0/1.0;
}
dot1q-tunneling {
  block-vlans 300;
}
D.    {master:0}[edit vlans pv200]
user@S1# show
vlan-id 200;
interface {
  ge-0/0/0.0 {
    dot1q-tunneling {
      customer-vlans [ 100 200 ];
    }
  }
  ge-0/0/1.0;
}

Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Click the Exhibit button.
 clip_image001[12]
The four routers in the exhibit are participating in a multi-area OSPF topology.
Node B (in the upper right-hand corner) is an ASBR advertising an external route.
Node A (lower left-hand corner) receives the external route and begins to forward traffic to the ASBR.
How many hops will the packets take through this topology? (Do not count node A.)

A.    2
B.    3
C.    4
D.    5

Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Click the Exhibit button.
 clip_image001[14]
The phone connected to switch-1 in the exhibit cannot communicate with the rest of the network.
How do you solve this problem?

A.    Add the VLAN named voice as a member of the trunk on interface ge-0/0/12.0.
B.    Configure the voice VLAN on interface ge-0/0/6.0.
C.    Add interface ge-0/0/12.0 to the ethernet-switching-options voip hierarchy.
D.    Configure LLDP-MED for interface ge-0/0/12.0.

Answer: A

QUESTION 13
You are AS 6573.Which AS path regular expression matches only routes originated in your AS?

A.    “6573.*”
B.    “.*”
C.    “{”
D.    “^$”

Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which protocol reachability is advertised by OSPFv2? (Choose two.)

A.    IPv4
B.    IPv5
C.    IPv6
D.    ISO

Answer: AD

QUESTION 15
Click the Exhibit button.
 clip_image002
You are using an IBGP route reflector within your network.
Your route reflector has received the 2001:1:2::/64 prefix, but it is not advertising the prefix to its cluster members.
After examining the route reflector, you notice the output shown in the exhibit.
Which configuration statement causes the route reflector to transmit the route to its IBGP peers?

A.    set protocols bgp group ibgpv6 advertise-inactive
B.    set protocols bgp group ibgpv6 accept-remote-nexthop
C.    set protocols bgp group ibgpv6 multipath
D.    set protocols bgp group ibgpv6 include-mp-next-hop

Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Your ScreenOS device does not have a static IP address. You want to be able to access it using its FQDN. How would you implement this task?

A.    Configure a domain in DNS.
B.    Configure syslog.
C.    Configure SNMP.
D.    Configure DDNS.

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
You have just installed a new ScreenOS device in your network and you want only a select range of IP addresses to have administrative access to the device. Which choice will allow you to accomplish this?

A.    Configure a manager IP.
B.    Configure the management interface.
C.    Configure a management IP on the trust interface.
D.    Configure new system administrators.

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
A routing table contains an IBGP route for 192.168.0.0/24, a RIP route for 192.168.0.0/23, an OSPF route for 192.168.0.0/22, and a static route for 192.168.0.0/16. When the router receives traffic destined for 192.168.0.1, which route will the router use?

A.    the IBGP route
B.    the OSPF route
C.    the RIP route
D.    the static route

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You are troubleshooting telnet traffic destined to IP address 10.10.10.1. You decide to run debug and want to set the flow filter. Which command will show only the telnet traffic going to the 10.10.10.1 address?

A.    ssg5-serial-> set ffilter dst-ip 10.10.10.1
ssg5-serial-> set ffilter dst-port 23
B.    ssg5-serial-> set ffilter dst-ip 10.10.10.1 dst-port 23
C.    ssg5-serial-> set ffilter dst-port 23
D.    ssg5-serial-> set ffilter dst-ip 10.10.10.1

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You have enabled BGP on your ScreenOS device and configured a single EBGP peer. The CLI shows that the BGP connection is transitioning between the CONNECT and ACTIVE states, but never reaching the ESTABLISHED state. What are three reasons for this behavior? (Choose three.)

A.    The peer is blocking traffic destined for TCP port 179.
B.    The peer address is not configured correctly.
C.    The enable statement has not been configured for the peer.
D.    The peer AS number is not configured correctly.
E.    BGP has not been enabled on the virtual router.

Answer: ABD

QUESTION 6
You want to set up a last resort route and prevent route lookups in either the source-based routing table or the destination-based routing table. What should you do?

A.    Disable SIBR and create a default route in the trust-vr table using the null interface as the outgoing
interface with a higher metric than other routes.
B.    Disable SIBR and create a default route in the trust-vr table using the null interface as the outgoing
interface with a lower metric than other routes.
C.    Enable SIBR and create a default route in the SIBR table using the null interface as the outgoing
interface with a higher metric than other routes.
D.    Enable SIBR and create a default route in the SIBR table using the null interface as the outgoing
interface with a lower metric than other routes.

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
You have the following BGP configuration in place to establish a session with a remote peer over your ethernet4 interface.
set vrouter trust-vr protocol bgp 65000
set vrouter trust-vr protocol bgp enable
set vrouter trust-vr protocol bgp neighbor remote-as 65500
set vrouter trust-vr protocol bgp neighbor enable
Which additional statement is necessary to establish the session?

A.    set interface protocol bgp enable
B.    set interface ethernet4 bgp enable
C.    set vrouter trust-vr protocol bgp interface ethernet4
D.    set interface ethernet4 protocol bgp

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
You have only one public IP address available and you must allow external access to three servers on a DMZ network. Which two NAT types would allow you to accomplish your objective? (Choose two.)

A.    MIP
B.    VIP
C.    NAT-dst
D.    NAT-src

Answer: BC

QUESTION 9
Your ScreenOS device is configured with multiple NAT types.
What is the order of precedence in this situation?

A.    interface-based NAT -> VIP -> MIP -> policy-based NAT
B.    VIP -> MIP -> policy-based NAT -> interface-based NAT
C.    MIP -> VIP -> interface-based NAT -> policy-based NAT
D.    MIP -> VIP -> policy-based NAT -> interface-based NAT

Answer: D

QUESTION 10
You must translate a range of public IP addresses to a range of internal IP addresses. Which two mechanisms would you use to accomplish your objective? (Choose two.)

A.    MIP using masks
B.    VIP using masks
C.    policy-based NAT-dst
D.    policy-based NAT-src

Answer: AC

QUESTION 11
You enter the following commands:
snoop filter ip dst-ip 1.1.1.10
snoop filter ip src-ip 2.1.1.10
What is the net result of these settings?

A.    Only packets with both a dst-ip of 1.1.1.10 and a src-ip of 2.1.1.10 will be captured
B.    Packets that have either a dst-ip of 1.1.1.10 or packets with a src-ip of 2.1.1.10 will be captured
C.    The second command will be ignored since a second filter cannot be added until the first one has been deleted
D.    The second command you entered will overwrite the first command you entered so you will only capture traffic with a src-ip of 2.1.1.10

Answer: B
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QUESTION 1
Which OSPF LSA type is sent from the ABR to describe an ASBR that is in an area to which it is connected?

A.    Type 7
B.    Type 5
C.    Type 4
D.    Type 3

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Click the Exhibit button. You are asked to configure a new external BGP peering. You have configured BGP on R1 as shown in the exhibit, however the BGP peering remains in Active state.
Which additional configuration is required on R1 to establish the BGP peering?
 clip_image002[4]

A.    Configure the local-address.
B.    Configure the BGP type as external.
C.    Remove the local-as statement.
D.    Remove the autonomous-system statement.

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which OSPF adjacency state is reached when a hello packet has been sent, but bidirectional communication has not been established?

A.    Down
B.    Init
C.    2-way
D.    ExStart

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Based on the exhibit, which configuration will permit end-to-end routing through the GRE tunnel for R1?
 clip_image001[8]

A.    [edit]
user@R1# show routing-options static
route 12.168.2.1/32 next-hop gr-0/0/0.0;
route 172.20.111.0/24 next-hop 12.168.1.1;
B.    [edit]
user@R1# show routing-options static
route 12.168.2.1/32 next-hop gr-0/0/0.0;
route 172.20.111.0/24 next-hop 172..1.1;
C.    [edit]
user@R1# show routing-options static
route 12.168.2.1/32 next-hop 172..1.1;
route 172.20.111.0/24 next-hop gr-0/0/0.0;
D.    [edit]
user@R1# show routing-options static
route 12.168.2.1/32 next-hop 172..2.2;
route 172.20.111.0/24 next-hop 172..1.1;

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which two OSPF areas allow external routes? (Choose two.)

A.    backbone area
B.    not-so-stubby area
C.    stub area
D.    totally stubby area

Answer: AB

QUESTION 6
Which LSA packet types are originated only by an OSPF ABR router?

A.    Type 2 and Type 3
B.    Type 3 and Type 4
C.    Type 5 and Type 6
D.    Type 6 and Type 7

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
In an OSPF environment, which two configuration parameters are used to determine which router is the DR? (Choose two.)

A.    the router with the highest priority
B.    the router with the lowest priority
C.    the router with the highest RID
D.    the router with the lowest RID

Answer: AC

QUESTION 8
You have entered the show ospf route command and see routes with a metric type of EXT2.
What does this indicate?

A.    These routes are OSPF interarea routes.
B.    These routes have been redistributed into OSPF and are using a Type 2 metric.
C.    These routes are preferred over the same routes with an EXT1 metric.
D.    These routes are OSPF intra-area routes.

Answer: B

QUESTION 9
You want to verify the frequency and type of SPF calculations on your Junos device.
Which command displays this information?

A.    show ospf database | match log
B.    show spf log
C.    show ospf log
D.    show ospf statistics

Answer: C

QUESTION 10
You are troubleshooting an OSPF adjacency that is stuck in the ExStart state.
What would be the correct step to resolve the problem?

A.    Look for a mismatched IP subnet or mask.
B.    Determine whether the neighbor is a DR-Other.
C.    Determine whether the hello and dead intervals are the same on both sides.
D.    Review the MTU settings to ensure that they match.

Answer: D

QUESTION 11
You are asked to redistribute routes into OSPF.
Which action accomplishes this task?

A.    Create a redistribution policy and apply it as an export policy under the [edit protocols ospf area] hierarchy.
B.    Create a redistribution policy and apply it as an import policy in the [edit protocols ospf] hierarchy.
C.    Create a redistribution policy and apply it as an import or an export policy in the [edit protocols ospf] hierarchy.
D.    Create a redistribution policy and apply it as an export policy in the [edit protocols ospf] hierarchy.

Answer: D

QUESTION 12
You are configuring OSPF on a Junos device; however, you have not configured a router ID.
What is the default behavior in this situation?

A.    If the loopback is configured with a 127/8 address, it will be used.
B.    If the loopback is not configured, it will use the interface with the highest IP address.
C.    If the loopback is configured and does not have a usable address, the IP address associated with the first hardware interface is used.
D.    If you configure a dedicated management address and include that interface in OSPF, it will be
used as the router ID.

Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which two statements correctly describe IS-IS adjacencies? (Choose two.)

A.    Level 1 adjacencies can form in the same (intra) area only.
B.    Level 2 adjacencies are formed between (inter) areas only.
C.    Level 2 adjacencies can be established either interarea or intra-area.
D.    Level 2 adjacencies can form within the same (intra) area only.

Answer: AC

QUESTION 14
Which IS-IS PDU is used to request a retransmission of a missing link-state packet?

A.    the complete sequence number PDU
B.    the partial sequence number PDU
C.    a hello PDU with a request PDU TLV specifying the missing LSP
D.    a hello PDU with a refresh PDU TLV requesting all LSPs

Answer: B
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QUESTION 1
What does Junos Pulse Collaboration provide?

A.    group instant messaging services
B.    Web-based meeting services
C.    corporate file sharing services
D.    conference call services

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
What does Secure Virtual Workspace (SVW) provide?

A.    a virtual desktop on a client desktop
B.    protected file storage on a remote server
C.    a protected workspace on a client virtual machine
D.    a protected workspace on the client desktop

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which platform supports the Junos Pulse Secure Access Service?

A.    MX Series
B.    SRX Series
C.    MAG Series
D.    EX Series

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
What are two valid Junos Pulse Secure Access Service clustering implementations? (Choose two.)

A.    passive/passive
B.    active/passive
C.    online/offline
D.    active/active

Answer: AC

QUESTION 5
The Junos Pulse client connects to which two Juniper Networks services? (Choose two.)

A.    Junos Pulse Secure Access Service
B.    Junos Pulse Access Control Service
C.    Unified Threat Management
D.    Intrusion Detection Prevention

Answer: CD

QUESTION 7
Which two server instances would be used as secondary authentication servers on the Junos Pulse Secure Access Service? (Choose two.)

A.    RADIUS server
B.    anonymous server
C.    Active Directory server
D.    certificate server

Answer: AC

QUESTION 8
Which two statements describe the functionality of the client standalone installer? (Choose two.)

A.    All Windows clients are available as standalone installers, except Host Checker.
B.    Juniper Installer Service client deployment requires administrative privileges.
C.    Juniper Installer Service client can be deployed using the automated Microsoft Systems Management
Server (SMS) service.
D.    Clients deployed using Juniper Installer Service require post-installation machine reboot.

Answer: BC
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QUESTION 1
Click the Exhibit button. Referring to the exhibit, R1, R2, and R3 boot at the same time. Several minutes later, R4 boots.
After R4 has been online for 40 seconds, which router will be the OSPF designated router?
 clip_image001
A.    R1
B.    R2
C.    R3
D.    R4

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Click the Exhibit button.
routing-options {
router-id 10.10.1.2;
}
policy-options {
policy-statement loadbalance {
term 1 {
from {
route-filter 100.100.0.0/16 exact;
}
then {
load-balance per-packet;
}
}
}
}
Referring to the exhibit, you have configured a load balancing policy and the router has an equal cost path for traffic to 10.100.0.0/16.
What must you do to complete the load balancing configuration?

A.    Apply the policy as an export policy under the [edit forwarding-options] hierarchy.
B.    Apply the policy as an import policy under the [edit forwarding-options] hierarchy.
C.    Apply the policy as an export policy under the [edit routing-options forwarding-table] hierarchy.
D.    Apply the policy as an import policy under the [edit routing-options forwarding-table] hierarchy.

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Click the Exhibit button. All OSPF routers shown in the exhibit booted at the same time, and the network has stabilized. How many adjacencies does R1 have?
 clip_image001[4]
A.    0
B.    1
C.    2
D.    3

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Click the Exhibit button. You have two routers, R1 and R2, running OSPF in area 0. Router R1 is having problems with forming and adjacency with Router R2.
Referring to the exhibit, which statement is correct about the OSPF configuration in the Router R1 trace output?
 clip_image002
A.    Router R1 has the wrong OSPF area configured.
B.    Router R2 has the wrong OSPF area configured.
C.    Router R1 has the wrong interface configured for OSPF.
D.    Router R2 has the wrong interface configured for OSPF.

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Click the Exhibit button.
user@Switch-1# run show dhcp snooping binding
DHCP Snooping Information:
MAC address IP address Lease (seconds) Type VLAN Interface
00:26:88:02:74:89 172.28.1.4 – static default ge-0/0/9.0
00:26:88:02:74:86 172.28.1.2 86113 dynamic default ge-0/0/6.0
00:26:88:02:74:87 172.28.1.3 86378 dynamic default ge-0/0/7.0
DHCP snooping is implemented on an EX Series switch. The results display a static MAC to IP binding on interface ge-0/0/9 as shown in the exhibit.
Which statement is correct?

A.    MAC address 00:26:88:02:74:89 is a static MAC address configured for a host attached to interface ge-0/0/9.
B.    MAC address 00:26:88:02:74:89 is a static MAC address to IP address binding in the DHCP server.
C.    MAC address 00:26:88:02:74:89 is a static MAC address to IP address configured on the L3 interface ge-0/0/9.
D.    MAC address 00:26:88:02:74:89 is a static address assigned using the command set interface ge-0/0/9.0 mac-allowed 00:26:88:02:74:89.

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Click the Exhibit button.
policy-statement load-balance {
from {
route-filter 172.24.0.0/24 exact;
route-filter 172.24.1.0/24 exact;
}
then {
load-balance per-packet;
}
}
Referring to the exhibit, which command or set of commands completes the configuration that will load balance packets to destinations 172.24.0.0 and 172.24.0.1?

A.    Set forwarding-options load-balance
B.    Set routing-options forwarding-table export load-balance
C.    Set protocols ospf area 0.0.0.0 policy load-balance
D.    Set protocols ospf area 0.0.0.0 load-balance
E.    Set forwarding-options export policy load-balance
F.    Set forwarding-options load-balance

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Click the Exhibit button.
[edit]
user@router# show routing-options
graceful-restart {
disable;
}
[edit]
user@router# show protocols bgp
graceful-restart;
group my-group {
type internal;
local-address 192.168.1.1;
neighbor 192.168.1.2;
neighbor 192.168.2.2 {
graceful-restart {
disable;
}
}
}
You have configured your router as shown in the exhibit.
Which statement is true based on the graceful restart (GR) configuration?

A.    GR has been disabled globally for all protocols including BGP.
B.    GR is enabled for all BGP neighbors.
C.    GR is enabled only for BGP neighbor 192.168.1.2.
D.    GR is not supported with BGP.

Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Click the Exhibit button. Referring to the exhibit, which interfaces will receive a packet sent to MAC address 00:05:85:7F:EB. 80 from the user with IP address 10.10.10.10?
 clip_image001[6]

A.    0/0/3 and 0/0/22
B.    0/0/9 and 0/0/23
C.    0/0/3, 0/0/9, 0/0/22, and 0/0/23
D.    0/0/1, 0/0/3, 0/0/9, 0/0/22, and 0/0/23

Answer: A

QUESTION 9
You are using redundant trunk groups (RTG) on your network.
Which two statements accurately describe RTG? (Choose two.)

A.    RTG interfaces pass BPDU packets.
B.    Aggregate Ethernet (AE) interfaces cannot be part of an RTG.
C.    RTG is used as an alternative to STP/RSTP.
D.    RTG connects an access switch to two aggregation switches.

Answer: CD

QUESTION 10
Which two packet types are handled solely by the RE within an EX4200? (Choose two.)

A.    OSPF hellos
B.    DHCP relay
C.    STP BPDUs
D.    IP multicast traffic

Answer: AC

QUESTION 11
Which statement is correct regarding the VLAN factory-default configuration on an EX Series
switch?

A.    The default configuration assigns the default VLAN to use ID 0.
B.    The default configuration assigns the default VLAN to use ID 10.
C.    The default configuration assigns all switch ports to the default VLAN.
D.    The default configuration assigns the management port only to the default VLAN.

Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Under which hierarchy do you configure OSPF?

A.    [edit protocols ospf]
B.    [edit routing-options]
C.    [edit routing-protocols]
D.    [edit protocols igp]

Answer: D

QUESTION 13
You add a GRE tunnel to transport packets between two routers. After implementing this, you notice an increase in the number of dropped packets. While looking at packet captures, you notice that the do-not-fragment (DF) bit is set in the IP header of all the dropped packets.
What would cause this changed behavior?

A.    The GRE tunnel has a lower MTU than the physical interface.
B.    GRE tunnels do not support fragmentation.
C.    GRE tunnels do not support the DF bit.
D.    The GRE tunnel has a higher MTU than the physical interface.

Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which three statements are correct about a Junos firewall filter? (Choose three.)

A.    It examines each packet individually.
B.    It tracks connections and allows you to specify an action to take on all packets within a flow.
C.    It requires you to configure the Junos operating system to explicitly allow traffic in both directions for each connection that you want to permit.
D.    It permits the initial connection and then automatically permits bidirectional communications for this connection.
E.    It is stateless in nature and is used by the software to control traffic passing through the device.

Answer: ACE
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QUESTION 1
Which network mask is the equivalent of 255.255.248.0?

A.    /20
B.    /21
C.    /22
D.    /23

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which login class permission will allow a user to use the telnet utility?

A.    Network permission
B.    Maintenance permission
C.    Supervisor permission
D.    Shell permission

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which command do you issue to upgrade the current software on Junos devices?

A.    request system software replace
B.    request system software install
C.    request system software add
D.    request system software upgrade

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which statement is true about terms in a policy?

A.    A single term can be applied to a protocol or interface, independent of the policy.
B.    Once configured, terms within a policy cannot be reordered.
C.    The name of a term is limited to five characters.
D.    A from statement is optional in a term.

Answer: D

QUESTION 5
What is the decimal equivalent of 10101010?

A.    182
B.    180
C.    172
D.    170

Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Two devices on an Ethernet segment sent frames at the same time causing a collision.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

A.    Both devices stop transmitting, wait a random period of time, verify the wire is idle, and re- transmit.
B.    The device with the lowest MAC address is permitted to retransmit first.
C.    The device with the lowest MAC address sends a jam signal to notify all other devices of the collision.
D.    Both devices send a jam signal to notify all other devices of the collision.

Answer: AD

QUESTION 7
You issue the command telnet interface ge-1/1/0 10.10.10.1 source 192.168.100.1 bypass-routing.
Which statement is correct?

A.    The bypass-routing parameter is ignored when using private IP addressing.
B.    The telnet session will have the source IP address 10.10.10.1.
C.    The telnet session will connect to the neighboring device’s interface ge-1/1/0.
D.    Return traffic for the telnet session might not arrive at interface ge-1/1/0.

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which statement is true regarding the Junos OS?

A.    Each process runs in its own protected memory space ensuring that one process cannot directly interfere with another.
B.    Processes share memory space but use separate ASICs so that one process cannot directly interfere with another.
C.    A central processor called the IP2 Chip dynamically assigns memory as process needs fluctuate.
D.    The memory management daemon (mmd) is responsible for allocating new memory for processes as they request it.

Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which two statements apply when a user has entered private configuration mode by typing configure private? (Choose two.)

A.    All users have their own active configuration.
B.    All users have their own private candidate configuration.
C.    When a user commits, all nonconflicting changes made by all users are committed.
D.    When a user commits, only the user’s own changes are committed.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
What is the default SNMP permission level on Junos devices?

A.    read
B.    read-write
C.    read-only
D.    write

Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which two statements are true of a network mask? (Choose two.)

A.    A subnet mask specifies the portion of an IP address that is in a binary format.
B.    A subnet mask specifies the portion of an IP address that is in a decimal format.
C.    A subnet mask specifies the portion of an IP address that represents a network prefix.
D.    A subnet mask specifies the portion of an IP address that represents network hosts.

Answer: CD

QUESTION 12
Which statement is true regarding the Junos OS?

A.    The Junos kernel is based on the Solaris operating system.
B.    The Junos kernel is based on the GNU Zebra operating system.
C.    The Junos kernel is completely original and not based on any other operating system.
D.    The Junos kernel is based on the FreeBSD UNIX operating system.

Answer: D

QUESTION 13
How can you verify that you have correctly configured SSH access to your Junos device?

A.    user@router# show system services
B.    user@router> show configuration services
C.    user@router# show configuration system services
D.    user@router# show system login

Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which statement is true regarding the password-recovery process?

A.    You must have a console connection.
B.    You cannot set the console port to an insecure mode.
C.    You must press the Enter key so that you can boot into single-user mode.
D.    When prompted to enter the full pathname of the shell, you must press the Enter key.

Answer: A

QUESTION 15
You are at the top of the hierarchy and must configure OSPF on interface so-0/0/0 unit 100.
Which two achieve this result? (Choose two.)

A.    set protocols
set ospf area 0
set interface so-0/0/0.100
B.    set protocols ospf area 0 interface so-0/0/0.100
C.    edit protocols ospf interface so-0/0/0.100
D.    edit protocols ospf area 0
set interface so-0/0/0.100

Answer: BD

QUESTION 16
Which statement describes an advantage of dynamic routing?

A.    Dynamic routing provides redundant IP addresses for end-user devices, unlike static routing.
B.    Dynamic routing requires no initial user configuration, unlike static routing.
C.    Dynamic routing provides DNS services along with IP connectivity; static routing does not.
D.    Dynamic routing typically requires less time to implement than static routing in a large network.

Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Which statement is true about the forwarding plane?

A.    It uses ASICs for increased performance.
B.    It is the intelligence of the platform.
C.    It maintains the routing tables.
D.    It is based on an x86 architecture.

Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Which two can be used to create and apply an export policy that advertises static routes to RIP neighbors? (Choose two.)

A.    set protocols rip export demo
B.    edit policy-options policy-statement demo
set term 1 from protocol static
set term 1 then accept
C.    edit policy-options policy-statement demo
set term 1 from protocol static accept
D.    set protocols rip group internal export demo

Answer: BD
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QUESTION 1
What is a specific feature of Network Attached Storage (NAS)?

A.    NAS presents data to the user as if it is stored on a file server
B.    NAS uses the file system of the client computers.
C.    The NAS operating system does not provide security features.
D.    With NAS the file system is managed by the servers storing the data.

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
What is OpenID used for?

A.    to connect to multiple web-sites without using a password
B.    to identify yourself in dealing on-line with government agencies
C.    to pay on-line via your own bank account
D.    to use one account to sign in to multiple web sites

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
How can moving to Cloud computing increase user satisfaction?

A.    by accomplishing quick and efficient release of applications
B.    by increasing the access to information available on the Internet
C.    by moving internal systems with performance problems to the Cloud
D.    by passing problems with applications to the Cloud provider

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Why became the Ethernet standard popular for Local Area Networks (LANs)?

A.    because the Ethernet standard was fastest
B.    because the Ethernet standard was released for general use
C.    because the Ethernet standard was suitable for mainframes
D.    because the Ethernet standard was used by the largest vendor

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
What is an example of the use of location information?

A.    to determine the user’s native language
B.    to determine whether the user is connected via a mobile platform
C.    to provide advertisements for local restaurants, determined by GPS
D.    to provide the correct version of the application for the user’s operating system

Answer: C
QUESTION 6
Failover is the capacity to switch, often automatically, to another system or resource in the event of a failure. How does failover assist in the provision of cloud services?

A.    It assists providers in ensuring continuity of service when there is a problem.
B.    It automatically restarts the system in case of a failure.
C.    It builds a back-up while the system is active.
D.    It provides hidden storage to be used when needed.

Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Why does a VPN offer more mobility to employees?

A.    It allows employees to work from locations other than their office.
B.    It offers more security at home than at the office.
C.    It offers a higher network speed at home than at the office.
D.    It does not require a network connection.

Answer: A

QUESTION 8
How might moving to the Cloud have a negative impact on users?

A.    Development is no longer in house and may take longer to be performed.
B.    Software licensing is no longer part of operations.
C.    Support and maintenance are no longer in house and may take longer to be performed.
D.    Uptimes can be guaranteed but not adjusted in a flexible manner.

Answer: A

QUESTION 9
What is not a staffing benefit of Cloud computing?

A.    Fewer IT-staff
B.    Lower employee benefits
C.    Lower recruitment costs
D.    Lower self-service costs

Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which process is an external process for a Cloud data center?

A.    Availability management
B.    Capacity management
C.    Service continuity management
D.    Service level management

Answer: D

QUESTION 11
What is meant by Virtualization?

A.    Virtualization means that data does not exist anywhere.
B.    Virtualization is a method to combine more computing power onto one server.
C.    Virtualization is a method to combine multiple computer environments onto one server.
D.    Virtualization means that no real computer system is needed to distribute cloud solutions.

Answer: C
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QUESTION 1
Which of the following is NOT part of quality planning?

A.    Define quality responsibilities
B.    Gain acceptance of the project product
C.    Agree acceptance criteria
D.    Set quality tolerances

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which should be provided by a project mandate?

A.    Terms of reference
B.    Detailed Business Case
C.    Stage tolerances
D.    Initiation Stage Plan

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which is an objective of the Starting up a Project process?

A.    Identify who will be responsible for creating the Project Plan
B.    Agree how the project will be monitored and controlled after initiation
C.    Authorize the Project Manager to proceed with the initiation stage
D.    Agree how issues and changes will be identified, assessed and controlled

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which should be funded by a change budget?

A.    Increase in agreed scope
B.    Initiation stage
C.    Change Authority
D.    Handover activities

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which of the following describes a use of a Configuration Item Record?

A.    Define the identification scheme to be applied to the project
B.    Identify the techniques and procedures required within the Work Package
C.    Record the change in a product’s status
D.    Record the reporting requirements for the Work Package

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which characteristic distinguishes a project from regular business operations?

A.    Produces benefits
B.    Introduces business change
C.    Manages stakeholders
D.    Incurs cost

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
What process aims to ensure accurate progress information is provided to the Project Manager?

A.    Starting up a Project
B.    Managing a Stage Boundary
C.    Managing Product Delivery
D.    Directing a Project

Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Where should an off-specification be recorded?

A.    Risk Register
B.    Issue Register
C.    Work Package
D.    Configuration Management Strategy

Answer: B

QUESTION 9
During the Managing a Stage Boundary process what product is updated with estimated costs and time for the stage that is about to begin?

A.    End Stage Report
B.    Team Plan
C.    Work Package
D.    Project Plan

Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which is a benefit of using PRINCE2?

A.    Provides a defined structure of accountability, delegation, authority and communication
B.    Includes techniques for critical path analysis and earned value analysis
C.    Enables a Project Manager to be accountable for the success of a project
D.    Prevents any changes once the scope of a project has been agreed

Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which statement is FALSE?

A.    A project outcome perceived to be negative by one or more stakeholders is a dis-benefit
B.    A project’s output is any of the project’s specialist products
C.    A project benefit is only realized after the project has closed
D.    A project outcome is the result of the change derived from using the project’s outputs

Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which is a responsibility of the managing level within the project management team?

A.    Set project tolerances
B.    Approve stage completion
C.    Ensure that the products are produced within the constraints agreed with the Project Board
D.    Appoint the project management team

Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which of the following statements about stakeholders are true?
1. Someone who thinks they will be affected by a project is a stakeholder on that project
2. Stakeholders may be internal or external to the corporate organization

A.    Only 1 is true
B.    Only 2 is true
C.    Both 1 and 2 are true
D.    Neither 1 or 2 are true

Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Which is a purpose of quality planning?

A.    Define the structure of the project management team
B.    Detail the acceptance criteria, in order for the Project Board to agree the level of quality expected of the project’s product
C.    Document approval records for those project products that have met their quality criteria
D.    Produce the Project Plan with resource and schedule information

Answer: B
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QUESTION 1
Which two processes will contribute MOST to enabling effective problem detection?

A.    Incident and financial management
B.    Change and release and deployment management
C.    Incident and event management
D.    Knowledge and service level management

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which of the following would be used to communicate a high level description of a major change that involved significant cost and risk to the organization?

A.    Change proposal
B.    Change policy
C.    Service request
D.    Risk register

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which one of the following is NOT part of the service design stage of the service lifecycle?

A.    Designing and maintaining all necessary service transition packages
B.    Producing quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services
C.    Taking service strategies and ensuring they are reflected in the service design processes and the service designs that are produced
D.    Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of service design and the supporting processes

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
What is the result of carrying out an activity, following a process or delivering an IT service known as?

A.    Outcome
B.    Incident
C.    Change
D.    Problem

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which process is responsible for managing relationships with vendors?

A.    Change management
B.    Service portfolio management
C.    Supplier management
D.    Continual service improvement

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which of the following service desk organizational structures are described in service operation?
(1) Local service desk
(2) Virtual service desk
(3) IT help desk
(4) Follow the sun

A.    1, 2 and 4 only
B.    2, 3 and 4 only
C.    1, 3 and 4 only
D.    1, 2 and 3 only

Answer: A

QUESTION 7
What are the categories of event described in the UIL service operation book?

A.    Informational, scheduled, normal
B.    Scheduled, unscheduled, emergency
C.    Informational, warning, exception
D.    Warning, reactive, proactive

Answer: C

QUESTION 8
What would you call the groups of people who have an interest in the activities, targets, resources and deliverables from service management?

A.    Employers
B.    Stakeholders
C.    Regulators
D.    Accreditors

Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which of the following are the MAIN objectives of incident management?
(1) To automatically detect service-affecting events
(2) To restore normal service operation as quickly as possible
(3) To minimize adverse impacts on business operations

A.    1 and 2 only
B.    2 and 3 only
C.    1 and 3 only
D.    All of the above

Answer: B

QUESTION 10
What is the name of the group that should review changes that must be implemented faster than the normal change process?

A.    Technical management
B.    Emergency change advisory board
C.    Urgent change board
D.    Urgent change authority

Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which of the following is NOT an objective of service transition?

A.    To ensure that a service can be operated, managed and supported
B.    To provide training and certification in project management
C.    To provide quality knowledge and information about services and service assets
D.    To plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release

Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which of the following types of service should be included in the scope of service portfolio management?
(1) Those planned to be delivered
(2) Those being delivered
(3) Those that have been withdrawn from service

A.    1 and 3 only
B.    All of the above
C.    1 and 2 only
D.    2 and 3 only

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
The BEST description of an incident is:

A.    An unplanned disruption of service unless there is a backup to that service
B.    An unplanned interruption to service or a reduction in the quality of service
C.    Any disruption to service whether planned or unplanned
D.    Any disruption to service that is reported to the service desk, regardless of whether the service is impacted or not

Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which one of the following is the CORRECT set of steps for the continual service improvement approach?

A.    Devise a strategy; Design the solution; Transition into production; Operate the solution; Continually improve
B.    Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; How do we check we arrived?; How do we keep the momentum going?
C.    Identify the required business outcomes; Plan how to achieve the outcomes; Implement the plan; Check the plan has been properly implemented; Improve the solution
D.    What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; Did we get there?; How do we keep the momentum going?

Answer: D

QUESTION 15
When can a known error record be raised?
(1) At any time it would be useful to do so
(2) After a workaround has been found

A.    2 only
B.    1 only
C.    Neither of the above
D.    Both of the above

Answer: D

QUESTION 16
What body exists to support the authorization of changes and to assist change management in the assessment and prioritization of changes?

A.    The change authorization board
B.    The change advisory board
C.    The change implementer
D.    The change manager

Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services have met their targets?

A.    Continual service improvement
B.    Change management
C.    Service level management
D.    Availability management

Answer: C

QUESTION 18
What do customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define?

A.    The value of a service
B.    Governance
C.    Total cost of ownership (TCO)
D.    Key performance indicators (KPIs)

Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Which of the following are basic concepts used in access management?

A.    Personnel, electronic, network, emergency, identity
B.    Rights, access, identity, directory services, service/service components
C.    Physical, personnel, network, emergency, service
D.    Normal, temporary, emergency, personal, group

Answer: B

QUESTION 20
Which of these statements about resources and capabilities is CORRECT?

A.    Resources are types of service asset and capabilities are not
B.    Resources and capabilities are both types of service asset
C.    Capabilities are types of service asset and resources are not
D.    Neither capabilities nor resources are types of service asset

Answer: B
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QUESTION 1
What can you do with the DBMS_LOB package?

A.    Use the DBMS_LOB.WRITE procedure to write data to a BFILE.
B.    Use the DBMS_LOB.BFILENAME function to locate an external BFILE.
C.    Use the DBMS_LOB.FILEEXISTS function to find the location of a BFILE.
D.    Use the DBMS_LOB.FILECLOSE procedure to close the file being accessed.

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Examine this procedure:
CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE ADD_PLAYER (V_ID IN NUMBER, V_LAST_NAME VARCHAR2) IS BEGIN INSERT INTO PLAYER (ID,LAST_NAME) VALUES (V_ID, V_LAST_NAME);
COMMIT;
END;
This procedure must invoke the UPD_BAT_STAT procedure and pass a parameter. Which statement, when added to the above procedure, will successfully invoke the UPD_BAT_STAT procedure?

A.    EXECUTE UPD_BAT_STAT(V_ID);
B.    UPD_BAT_STAT(V_ID);
C.    RUN UPD_BAT_STAT(V_ID);
D.    START UPD_BAT_STAT(V_ID);

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which three describe a stored procedure? (Choose three.)

A.    A stored procedure is typically written in SQL.
B.    By default, a stored procedure executes with the privileges of its owner.
C.    A stored procedure has three parts: the specification, the body, and the exception handler part .
D.    A stored procedure is stored in the database and can be shared by a number of programs.
E.    A stored procedure offers some advantages over a standalone SQL statement, such as programmable functionality and compiled code.

Answer: BDE

QUESTION 4
Examine this procedure:
CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE INSERT_TEAM (V_ID in NUMBER, V_CITY in VARCHAR2 DEFAULT ‘AUSTIN’, V_NAME in VARCHAR2) IS BEGIN INSERT INTO TEAM (id, city, name) VALUES (v_id, v_city, v_name);
COMMIT;
END;
Which two statements will successfully invoke this procedure in SQL*Plus? (Choose two.)

A.    EXECUTE INSERT_TEAM;
B.    EXECUTE INSERT_TEAM(3, V_NAME=>’LONGHORNS’, V_CITY=>’AUSTIN’);
C.    EXECUTE INSERT_TEAM(3,’AUSTIN’,’LONGHORNS’);
D.    EXECUTE INSERT_TEAM (V_ID := 3, V_NAME := ‘LONGHORNS’, V_CITY := ‘AUSTIN’);
E.    EXECUTE INSERT_TEAM (3,’LONGHORNS’);

Answer: BC

QUESTION 5
You need to create a DML trigger. Which five pieces need to be identified? (Choose five.)

A.    table
B.    DML event
C.    trigger body
D.    package body
E.    package name
F.    trigger name
G.    system event
H.    trigger timing

Answer: ABCFH

QUESTION 6
This statement fails when executed: CREATE OR REPLACE TRIGGER CALC_TEAM_AVG AFTER INSERT ON PLAYER BEGIN INSERT INTO PLAYER_BAT_STAT (PLAYER_ID, SEASON_YEAR,AT_BATS,HITS) VALUES (:NEW.ID, 1997, 0,0); END; To which type must you convert the trigger to correct the error?

A.    row
B.    statement
C.    ORACLE FORM trigger
D.    before

Answer: A

QUESTION 7
The add_player , upd_player_stat , and upd_pitcher_stat procedures are grouped together in a package. A variable must be shared among only these procedures. Where should you declare this variable?

A.    in the package body
B.    in a database trigger
C.    in the package specification
D.    in each procedure’s DECLARE section, using the exact same name in each

Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Examine this package:
  clip_image001[12]
Which statement is true?

A.    The value of DISCOUNT_RATE always remains 0.00 in a session.
B.    The value of DISCOUNT_RATE is set to 0.10 each time the package is invoked in a session.
C.    The value of DISCOUNT_RATE is set to 1.00 each time the procedure DISPLAY_PRICE is invoked.
D.    The value of DISCOUNT_RATE is set to 0.10 when the package is invoked for the first time in a session.

Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Examine this code:
 clip_image001[14]
Which statement is true?

A.    g_comm has a value of 15 at 9:06am for Smith.
B.    g_comm has a value of 15 at 9:06am for Jones.
C.    g_comm has a value of 20 at 9:06am for both Jones and Smith.
D.    g_comm has a value of 15 at 9:03am for both Jones and Smith.
E.    g_comm has a value of 10 at 9:06am for both Jones and Smith.
F.    g_comm has a value of 10 at 9:03 for both Jones and Smith.

Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Examine this code:
 clip_image001[16]
Which statement removes the function?

A.    DROP gen_email_name;
B.    REMOVE gen_email_name;
C.    DELETE gen_email_name;
D.    TRUNCATE gen_email_name;
E.    DROP FUNCTION gen_email_name;
F.    ALTER FUNCTION gen_email_name REMOVE;

Answer: E
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QUESTION 1
Examine the parameters for your database instance:
NAMETYPE VALUE
————————– ——————————- —————————
undo_management string AUTO
undo_retentioninteger 12 00
undo_tablespace string UNDOTBS1
You execute the following command:
SQL> ALTER TABLESPACE undotbs1 RETENTION NOGUARANTEE;
Which statement is true in this scenario?

A.    Undo data is written to flashback logs after 1200 seconds.
B.    Inactive undo data is retained for 1200 seconds even if subsequent transactions fail due to lack of space in the undo tablespace.
C.    You can perform a Flashback Database operation only within the duration of 1200 seconds.
D.    An attempt is made to keep inactive undo for 1200 seconds but transactions may overwrite the undo before that time has elapsed.

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A user establishes a connection to a database instance by using an Oracle Net connection. You want to ensure the following:
1. The user account must be locked after five unsuccessful login attempts.
2. Data read per session must be limited for the user.
3. The user cannot have more than three simultaneous sessions.
4. The user must have a maximum of 10 minutes session idle time before being logged off automatically.
How would you accomplish this?

A.    by granting a secure application role to the user
B.    by implementing Database Resource Manager
C.    by using Oracle Label Security options
D.    by assigning a profile to the user

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
As a user of the ORCL database, you establish a database link to the remote HQ database such that all users in the ORCL database may access tables only from the SCOTT schema in the HQ database. SCOTT’s password is TIGER. The service mane “HQ” is used to connect to the remote HQ database. Which command would you execute to create the database link?

A.    CREATE DATABASE LINK HQ USING ‘HQ’;
B.    CREATE DATABASE LINK HQ CONNECT TO CXJRRENT_USER USING HQ’ S
C.    CREATE PUBLIC DATABASE LINK HQ CONNECT TO scott IDENTIFIED BY tiger USING ‘HQ’;
D.    CREATE DATABASE LINK HQ CONNECT TO scott IDENTIFIED BY tiger USING ‘HQ’;

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
What happens if a maintenance window closes before a job that collects optimizer statistics completes?

A.    The job is terminated and the gathered statistics are not saved.
B.    The job is terminated but the gathered statistics are not published.
C.    The job continues to run until all statistics are gathered.
D.    The job is terminated and statistics for the remaining objects are collected the next time the maintenance window opens.

Answer: D

QUESTION 5
You plan to create a database by using the Database Configuration Assistant (DBCA), with the following specifications:
– Applications will connect to the database via a middle tier.
– The number of concurrent user connections will be high.
– The database will have mixed workload, with the execution of complex BI queries scheduled at night.
Which DBCA option must you choose to create the database?

A.    a General Purpose database template with default memory allocation
B.    a Data Warehouse database template, with the dedicated server mode option and AMM enabled
C.    a General Purpose database template, with the shared server mode option and Automatic Memory Management (AMM) enabled
D.    a default database configuration

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which two statements are true about the logical storage structure of an Oracle database?

A.    An extent contains data blocks that are always physically contiguous on disk.
B.    An extent can span multiple segments,
C.    Each data block always corresponds to one operating system block.
D.    It is possible to have tablespaces of different block sizes.
E.    A data block is the smallest unit of I/O in data files.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 7
Which two statements correctly describe the relationship between data files and logical database structures?

A.    A segment cannot span data files.
B.    A data file can belong to only one tablespace.
C.    An extent cannot span data files.
D.    The size of an Oracle data block in a data file should be the same as the size of an OS block.

Answer: BC

QUESTION 8
Which statement is true about the Log Writer process?

A.    It writes when it receives a signal from the checkpoint process (CKPT).
B.    It writes concurrently to all members of multiplexed redo log groups.
C.    It writes after the Database Writer process writes dirty buffers to disk.
D.    It writes when a user commits a transaction.

Answer: D

QUESTION 9
The ORCL database is configured to support shared server mode. You want to ensure that a user connecting remotely to the database instance has a one-to-one ratio between client and server processes. Which connection method guarantees that this requirement is met?

A.    connecting by using an external naming method
B.    connecting by using the easy connect method
C.    creating a service in the database by using the dbms_service.create_service procedure and using this service for creating a local naming service”
D.    connecting by using the local naming method with the server = dedicated parameter set in the tnsnames.ora file for the net service
E.    connecting by using a directory naming method

Answer: CE

QUESTION 10
Which two tasks can be performed on an external table?

A.    partitioning the table
B.    creating an invisible index
C.    updating the table by using an update statement
D.    creating a public synonym
E.    creating a view

Answer: CD

QUESTION 11
Which three statements are true about a job chain?

A.    It can contain a nested chain of jobs.
B.    It can be used to implement dependency-based scheduling.
C.    It cannot invoke the same program or nested chain in multiple steps in the chain.
D.    It cannot have more than one dependency.
E.    It can be executed using event-based or time-based schedules.

Answer: ABE

QUESTION 12
The hr user receiver, the following error while inserting data into the sales table:
ERROR at line 1:
ORA-01653; unable to extend table HR.SALES by 128 in tablespace USERS
On investigation, you find that the users tablespace uses Automnrif Segment Space Management (ASSM). It is the default tablespace for the HR user with an unlimited quota on it. Which two methods would you use to resolve this error?

A.    Altering the data life associated with the USERS tablespace to ex automatically
B.    Adding a data life to the USERS tablespace
C.    Changing segment space management for the USERS tablespace to manual
D.    Creating a new tablespace with autoextend enabled and changing the default tablespace of the HR user to the new tablespace
E.    Enabling resumable space allocation by setting the RESUMABLE_TIMEOUT parameter to a nonzero value

Answer: AD

QUESTION 13
Which three factors influence the optimizer’s choice of an execution plan?

A.    the optimizer_mode initialization parameter
B.    operating system (OS) statistics
C.    cardinality estimates
D.    object statistics in the data dictionary
E.    fixed baselines

Answer: AB

QUESTION 14
Examine the resources consumed by a database instance whose current Resource Manager plan is displayed.
SQL> SELECT name, active_sessions, queue_length,
Consumed_cpu_time, cpu_waits, cpu_wait_time
FROM v$rsrc_consumer_group;
NAMEACTIVE_SESSIONS QUEUE_LENGTH CONSUMED_CPU_WAITS
CPU_WAIT_TIME
———————————– ——————– ——————– ——————— —————-
OLTP__ORDER__ENTRY1029690 467
OTHES__GROUPS 0 059823664089
60425
SYS_GROUP 1 02420704 914
19540
DS.S_QUERIES4245946603004
55700
Which two statements are true?

A.    An attempt to start a new session by a user belonging to DSS_QUERIES fails with an error.
B.    An attempt to start a new session by a user belonging to OTHE_GROUPS fails with an error.
C.    The CPU_WAIT_TIME column indicates the total time that sessions in the consumer group waited for the CPU due to resource management.
D.    The CPU_WAIT_TIME column indicates the total time that sessions in the consumer group waited for the CPU due to I/O waits and latch or enqueue contention.
E.    A user belonging to the DSS__QUERIES resource consumer group can create a new session but the session will be queued.

Answer: CE

QUESTION 15
Which action takes place when a file checkpoint occurs?

A.    The checkpoint position is advanced in the checkpoint queue.
B.    All buffers for a checkpointed file that were modified before a specific SCN are written to disk by DBWn and the SCN is stored in the control file.
C.    The Database Writer process (DBWn) writes all dirty buffers in the buffer cache to data files.
D.    The Log Writer process (LGWR) writes all redo entries in the log buffer to online redo log files.

Answer: C
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QUESTION 1
You need to create a table for a banking application. One of the columns in the table has the following requirements:
1) You want a column in the table to store the duration of the credit period.
2) The data in the column should be stored in a format such that it can be easily added and subtracted with date data type without using conversion functions.
3) The maximum period of the credit provision in the application is 30 days.
4) The interest has to be calculated for the number of days an individual has taken a credit for.
Which data type would you use for such a column in the table?

A.    DATE
B.    NUMBER
C.    TIMESTAMP
D.    INTERVAL DAY TO SECOND
E.    INTERVAL YEAR TO MONTH

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which three tasks can be performed using SQL functions built into Oracle Database?

A.    Displaying a date in a nondefault format
B.    Finding the number of characters in an expression
C.    Substituting a character string in a text expression with a specified string
D.    Combining more than two columns or expressions into a single column in the output

Answer: ABC

QUESTION 3
View the Exhibit and examine the data in the employees table:
 clip_image002[8]
You want to display all the employee names and their corresponding manager names.
Evaluate the following query:
 
Which join option can be used in the blank in the above query to get the required output?

A.    INNER JOIN
B.    FULL OUTER JOIN
C.    LEFT OUTER JOIN
D.    RIGHT OUTER JOIN

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
YOU need to display the date ll-oct-2007 in words as `Eleventh of October, Two Thousand Seven’.
Which SQL statement would give the required result?
 clip_image002[10]

A.    Option A
B.    Option B
C.    Option C
D.    Option D

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Examine the data in the ORD_ITEMS table:
 clip_image001[6]
Evaluate the following query:
 clip_image001[8]
Which statement is true regarding the outcome of the above query?

A.    It gives an error because the having clause should be specified after the group by clause.
B.    It gives an error because all the aggregate functions used in the having clause must be specified
in the select list.
C.    It displays the item nos with their average quantity where the average quantity is more than double
the minimum quantity of that item in the table.
D.    It displays the item nos with their average quantity where the average quantity is more than double
the overall minimum quantity of all the items in the table.

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which two statements are true regarding subqueries?

A.    A subquery can retrieve zero or more rows.
B.    Only two subqueries can be placed at one level.
C.    A subquery can be used only in SQL query statements.
D.    A subquery can appear on either side of a comparison operator.
E.    There is no limit on the number of subquery levels in the WHERE clause of a SELECT statement.

Answer: AD
Explanation:
Using a Subquery to Solve a Problem
Suppose you want to write a query to find out who earns a salary greater than Abel’s salary.
To solve this problem, you need two queries: one to find how much Abel earns, and a second query to find who earns more than that amount. You can solve this problem by combining the two queries, placing one query inside the other query. The inner query (or subquery) returns a value that is used by the outer query (or main query).
Using a subquery is equivalent to performing two sequential queries and using the result of the first query as the search value in the second query.
Subquery Syntax
A subquery is a SELECT statement that is embedded in the clause of another SELECT statement. You can build powerful statements out of simple ones by using subqueries. They can be very useful when you need to select rows from a table with a condition that depends on the data in the table itself.
You can place the subquery in a number of SQL clauses, including the following:
WHERE clause
HAVING clause
FROM clause
In the syntax:
operator includes a comparison condition such as >, =, or IN Note: Comparison conditions fall into two classes: single-row operators (>, =, >=, <, <>, <=) and multiple-row operators (IN, ANY, ALL, EXISTS). The subquery is often referred to as a nested SELECT, sub-SELECT, or inner SELECT statement. The subquery generally executes first, and its output is used to complete the query condition for the main (or outer) query.
Guidelines for Using Subqueries
Enclose subqueries in parentheses. Place subqueries on the right side of the comparison condition for readability. (However, the subquery can appear on either side of the comparison operator.) Use single-row operators with single-row subqueries and multiple- row operators with multiple-row subqueries.
Subqueries can be nested to an unlimited depth in a FROM clause but to “only” 255 levels in a WHERE clause. They can be used in the SELECT list and in the FROM, WHERE, and HAVING clauses of a query.

QUESTION 7
Examine the structure of the products table:
 clip_image001[10]
You want to display the names of the products that have the highest total value for UNIT_PRICE * QTY_IN_HAND.
Which SQL statement gives the required output?
 clip_image002[12]

A.    Option A
B.    Option B
C.    Option C
D.    Option D

Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
You notice that the performance of your production 24/7 Oracle database significantly degraded. Sometimes you are not able to connect to the instance because it hangs. You do not want to restart the database instance.
How can you detect the cause of the degraded performance?

A.    Enable Memory Access Mode, which reads performance data from SGA.
B.    Use emergency monitoring to fetch data directly from SGA analysis.
C.    Run Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) to fetch information from the latest Automatic
Workload Repository (AWR) snapshots.
D.    Use Active Session History (ASH) data and hang analysis in regular performance monitoring.
E.    Run ADDM in diagnostic mode.

Answer: C
Explanation:
*In most cases, ADDM output should be the first place that a DBA looks when notified of a performance problem.
*Performance degradation of the database occurs when your database was performing optimally in the past, such as 6 months ago, but has gradually degraded to a point where it becomes noticeable to the users. The Automatic Workload Repository (AWR) Compare Periods report enables you to compare database performance between two periods of time.
While an AWR report shows AWR data between two snapshots (or two points in time), the AWR Compare Periods report shows the difference between two periods (or two AWR reports with a total of four snapshots). Using the AWR Compare Periods report helps you to identify detailed performance attributes and configuration settings that differ between two time periods.
Reference:Resolving Performance Degradation Over Time

QUESTION 2
You plan to use the In Database Archiving feature of Oracle Database 12c, and store rows that are inactive for over three months, in Hybrid Columnar Compressed (HCC) format.
Which three storage options support the use of HCC?

A.    ASM disk groups with ASM disks consisting of Exadata Grid Disks.
B.    ASM disk groups with ASM disks consisting of LUNS on any Storage Area Network array
C.    ASM disk groups with ASM disks consisting of any zero padded NFS-mounted files
D.    Database files stored in ZFS and accessed using conventional NFS mounts.
E.    Database files stored in ZFS and accessed using the Oracle Direct NFS feature
F.    Database files stored in any file system and accessed using the Oracle Direct NFS feature
G.    ASM disk groups with ASM disks consisting of LUNs on Pillar Axiom Storage arrays

Answer: AEG
Explanation:
HCC requires the use of Oracle Storage ?Exadata(A), Pillar Axiom(G)or Sun ZFS Storage Appliance (ZFSSA).
Note:
*Hybrid Columnar Compression, initially only available on Exadata, has been extended to supportPillar Axiom and Sun ZFS Storage Appliance (ZFSSA) storage when used with Oracle Database Enterprise Edition 11.2.0.3 and above
*Oracle offers the ability to manage NFS using a feature called Oracle Direct NFS (dNFS). Oracle Direct NFS implements NFS V3 protocol within the Oracle database kernel itself. Oracle Direct NFS client overcomes many of the challenges associated with using NFS with the Oracle Database with simple configuration, betterperformance than traditional NFS clients, and offers consistent configuration across platforms.
QUESTION 3
In your multitenant container database (CDB) containing pluggable databases (PDB), users complain about performance degradation.
How does real-time Automatic database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) check performance degradation and provide solutions?

A.    It collects data from SGA and compares it with a preserved snapshot.
B.    It collects data from SGA, analyzes it, and provides a report.
C.    It collects data from SGA and compares it with the latest snapshot.
D.    It collects data from both SGA and PGA, analyzes it, and provides a report.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Note:
*The multitenant architecture enables an Oracle database to function as a multitenant container database (CDB) that includes zero, one, or many customer-created pluggable databases (PDBs). A PDB is a portable collection of schemas, schema objects, and nonschema objects that appears to an Oracle Net client as a non-CDB. All Oracle databases before Oracle Database 12c were non-CDBs.
*The System Global Area (SGA) is a group of shared memory areas that are dedicated to an Oracle “instance” (an instance is your database programs and RAM). *The PGA (Program or Process Global Area) is a memory area (RAM) that stores data and control information for a single process.

QUESTION 4
The tnsnames.ora file has an entry for the service alias ORCL as follows:
  clip_image002[4]
The TNS ping command executes successfully when tested with ORCL; however, from the same OS user session, you are not able to connect to the database instance with the following command:
SQL > CONNECT scott/tiger@orcl
What could be the reason for this?

A.    The listener is not running on the database node.
B.    The TNS_ADMIN environment variable is set to the wrong value.
C.    The orcl.oracle.com database service is not registered with the listener.
D.    The DEFAULT_DOMAIN parameter is set to the wrong value in the sqlnet.ora file.
E.    The listener is running on a different port.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Service registration enables the listener to determine whether a database service and its service handlers are available. A service handler is a dedicated server process or dispatcher that acts as a connection point to a database. During registration, the LREG process provides the listener with the instance name, database service names, and the type and addresses of service handlers. This information enables the listener to start a service handler when a client request arrives.

QUESTION 5
Examine the following steps of privilege analysis for checking and revoking excessive, unused privileges granted to users:
1. Create a policy to capture the privilege used by a user for privilege analysis.
2. Generate a report with the data captured for a specified privilege capture.
3. Start analyzing the data captured by the policy.
4. Revoke the unused privileges.
5. Compare the used and unused privileges’ lists.
6. Stop analyzing the data.
Identify the correct sequence of steps.

A.    1, 3, 5, 6, 2, 4
B.    1, 3, 6, 2, 5, 4
C.    1, 3, 2, 5, 6, 4
D.    1, 3, 2, 5, 6, 4
E.    1, 3, 5, 2, 6, 4

Answer: B
Explanation:
1.Create a policy to capture the privilege used by a user for privilege analysis.
3.Start analyzing the data captured by the policy.
6.Stop analyzing the data.
2.Generate a report with the data captured for a specified privilege capture.
5.Compare the used and unused privileges’ lists.
4.Revoke the unused privileges.

QUESTION 6
You database is running an ARCHIVELOG mode.
The following parameter are set in your database instance:
LOG_ARCHIVE_FORMAT = arch+%t_%r.arc
LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_1 = `LOCATION = /disk1/archive’
DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST_SIZE = 50G
DB_RECOVERY_FILE = `/u01/oradata’
Which statement is true about the archived redo log files?

A.    They are created only in the location specified by the LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_1 parameter.
B.    They are created only in the Fast Recovery Area.
C.    They are created in the location specified by the LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_1 parameter and in the
default location $ORACLE_HOME/dbs/arch.
D.    They are created in the location specified by the LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_1 parameter and the location
specified by the DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST parameter.

Answer: A
Explanation:
You can choose to archive redo logs to a single destination or to multiple destinations.
Destinations can be local–within the local file system or an Oracle Automatic Storage Management (Oracle ASM) disk group–or remote (on a standby database). When you archive to multiple destinations, a copy of each filled redo log file is written to each destination. These redundant copies help ensure that archived logs are always available in the event of a failure at one of the destinations. To archive to only a single destination, specify that destination using the LOG_ARCHIVE_DESTandLOG_ARCHIVE_DUPLEX_DESTinitialization parameters. ARCHIVE_DEST initialization parameter. To archive to multiple destinations, you can choose to archive to two or more locations using the LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_n initialization parameters, or to archive only to a primary and secondary destination using the LOG_ ARCHIVE_DEST and LOG_ARCHIVE_DUPLEX_DEST initialization parameters.

QUESTION 7
Your multitenant container database (CDB) is running in ARCHIVELOG mode. You connect to the CDB RMAN. Examine the following command and its output:
 clip_image002[6]
You execute the following command:
RMAN > BACKUP DATABASE PLUS ARCHIVELOG;
Which data files will be backed up?

A.    Data files that belong to only the root container
B.    Data files that belong to the root container and all the pluggable databases (PDBs)
C.    Data files that belong to only the root container and PDB$SEED
D.    Data files that belong to the root container and all the PDBs excluding PDB$SEED

Answer: B
Explanation:
Backing Up a Whole CDB
Backing up a whole CDB is similar to backing up a non-CDB. When you back up a whole CDB, RMAN backs up the root, all the PDBs, and the archived redo logs. You can then recover either the whole CDB, the root only, or one or more PDBs from the CDB backup.
Note:
*You can back up and recover a whole CDB, the root only, or one or more PDBs.
*Backing Up Archived Redo Logs with RMAN
Archived redo logs are the key to successful media recovery. Back them up regularly. You can back up logs with BACKUP ARCHIVELOG, or back up logs while backing up datafiles and control files by specifying BACKUP … PLUS ARCHIVELOG.

QUESTION 8
You are administering a database stored in Automatic Storage management (ASM). The files are stored in the DATA disk group. You execute the following command:
SQL > ALTER DISKGROUP data ADD ALIAS `+data/prod/myfile.dbf’ FOR `+data.231.45678′;
What is the result?
A.    The file `+data.231.54769′ is physically relocated to `+data/prod’ and renamed as `myfile.dbf’.
B.    The file `+data.231.54769′ is renamed as `myfile.dbf’, and copied to `+data/prod’.
C.    The file `+data.231.54769′ remains in the same location andasynonym’myfile.dbf’ is created.
D.    The file `myfile.dbf’ is created in `+data/prod’ and the reference to `+data.231.54769′ in the data
dictionary removed.

Answer: C
Explanation:
ADD ALIAS
Use this clause to create an alias name for an Oracle ASM filename. The alias_name consists of the full directory path and the alias itself.

QUESTION 9
Which three functions are performed by the SQL Tuning Advisor?

A.    Building and implementing SQL profiles
B.    Recommending the optimization of materialized views
C.    Checking query objects for missing and stale statistics
D.    Recommending bitmap, function-based, and B-tree indexes
E.    Recommending the restructuring of SQL queries that are using bad plans

Answer: ACE
Explanation:
The SQL Tuning Advisor takes one or more SQL statements as an input and invokes the Automatic Tuning Optimizer to perform SQL tuning on the statements. The output of the SQL Tuning Advisor is in the form of an advice or recommendations, along with a rationale for eachrecommendation and its expected benefit. The recommendation relates to collection of statistics on objects(C), creation of new indexes, restructuring of the SQL statement(E), or creation of a SQL profile(A). You can choose to accept the recommendation to complete the tuning of the SQL statements.

QUESTION 10
Examine the following command:
ALTER SYSTEM SET enable_ddl_logging=FALSE;
Which statement is true?

A.    None of the data definition language (DDL) statements are logged in the trace file.
B.    Only DDL commands that resulted in errors are logged in the alert log file.
C.    A new log.xml file that contains the DDL statements is created, and the DDL command details are
removed from the alert log file.
D.    Only DDL commands that resulted in the creation of new database files are logged.

Answer: A
Explanation:
ENABLE_DDL_LOGGING enables or disables the writing of a subset of data definition language (DDL) statements to a DDL alert log.
The DDL log is a file that has the same format and basic behavior as the alert log, but it only contains the DDL statements issued by the database. The DDL log is created only for the RDBMS component and only if the ENABLE_DDL_LOGGING initialization parameter is set to true. When this parameter is set to false, DDL statements are not included in any log.

QUESTION 11
Your multitenant container database (CDB) contains three pluggable database (PDBs). You find that the control file is damaged. You plan to use RMAN to recover the control file. There are no startup triggers associated with the PDBs.
Which three steps should you perform to recover the control file and make the database fully operational?

A.    Mount the container database (CDB) and restore the control file from the control file auto backup.
B.    Recover and open the CDB in NORMAL mode.
C.    Mount the CDB and then recover and open the database, with the RESETLOGS option.
D.    Open all the pluggable databases.
E.    Recover each pluggable database.
F.    Start the database instance in the nomount stage and restore the control file from control file auto backup.

Answer: CDF
Explanation:
Step 1: F
Step 2: D
Step 3: C: If all copies of the current control file are lost or damaged, then you must restore and mount a backup control file. You must then run the RECOVERcommand, even if no data files have been restored, and open the database with the RESETLOGS option.
Note:
*RMAN and Oracle Enterprise Manager Cloud Control (Cloud Control) provide full support for backup and recovery in a multitenant environment. You can back up and recover a whole multitenant container database (CDB), root only, or one or more pluggable databases (PDBs).

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QUESTION 1
What is a characteristic feature of My Documentum for Desktop?

A.    Integration with Windows File System Explorer
B.    Recycle bin
C.    A Documentum menu bar item
D.    A customization of Webtop

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which Webtop feature enables quick access to favorite documents from the browser tree menu?

A.    Properties dialog
B.    Favorites
C.    Subscription
D.    Notification

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
What happens to a Microsoft Word document when a user imports it into the repository?

A.    A copy of the document is made and imported into the repository file store.
B.    Nothing. Documentum only stores metadata along with a pointer to the document in the file system.
C.    A copy of the document is made and imported along with metadata into the repository.
D.    The original document is moved from the file system and imported into the repository file store.

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
In a Documentum environment, how is it apparent to a user that Microsoft Office integrations are enabled on their machine?

A.    The user is restricted to using only Microsoft Office formats when creating new documents.
B.    A Microsoft logo appears in the upper-right corner of the Webtop home page.
C.    A Documentum menu option displays when the user opens Microsoft Word.
D.    A Microsoft Office menu option displays when the user logs in to Webtop.

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
A Webtop user checks out a Microsoft Word document from the repository and edits it.
How will the user be prompted upon checkin of the edited document?

A.    Checkin as the same, next minor, or next major version.
B.    Checkin as the same version
C.    Checkin as either the next major or minor version
D.    Rename the new version

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
When a document object is checked in as the same version, which statement is true?

A.    All renditions are orphaned from all versions.
B.    All renditions are orphaned from the current version.
C.    No renditions are orphaned from the current version.
D.    All renditions remain attached to a document object regardless of same version checkin.

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
If a user has completed the checkout operation on a document object, which statement is true?

A.    Only this user or a superuser can cancel the checkout operation.
B.    Only this user can cancel the checkout operation.
C.    Only this user or a superuser cancheckin the document object.
D.    Only the superuser can cancel the checkout operation.

Answer: A

QUESTION 8
When a document with renditions is versioned, which statement is true?

A.    New renditions must be generated automatically.
B.    All renditions from previous version are carried over by default.
C.    All renditions remain attached to a document object regardless of new version checkin.
D.    All renditions are orphaned from all versions.

Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which statement is true for checking in multiple document objects to a repository?

A.    The client application determines if two or more document objects can be allowed to have the same name in the same folder.
B.    The Content Server determines if two or more document objects can be allowed to have the same name in the same folder.
C.    The data dictionary can be configured to allow more than one document object with the same name in the same folder.
D.    The Content Server architecture does not allow document objects with the same name in the same folder.

Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which statement is true for a user who has Browse and Extended Delete and does not belong to any roles listed on the permission set?

A.    The user can view the document object’s content and delete the document object.
B.    The user can move or delete the document object but is unable to view the properties.
C.    The user can move or delete the document object and view its content.
D.    The user can view the properties but is unable to view the document object’s content.

Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which statement is true regarding versioning when a user edits version 1.1 of a document object, which is an older version than what is currently available?

A.    A new version of the document object is created, and “1.0” is appended to the edited version.
B.    A new version of the document object is created, and “2.0” is appended to the edited version.
C.    The document object is saved as version 1.1.
D.    The document object is saved as version 2.0.

Answer: A

QUESTION 12
A client application applies the “In Review” version label to a document object.
What is the expected behavior the next time a user performs a checkin on that document?

A.    The “In Review” version label can be applied to the new version of the document and the previous version.
B.    The “In Review” version label can be applied to the new version of the document and is removed from the previous version.
C.    The “In Review” version label cannot be applied to the new version of the document and remains with the previous version.
D.    The “In Review” version label can be applied to the new version of the document, while the previous version with the same label will be deleted by the Content Server.

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
A user has Edit (Write) permission on a document object that is contained in FolderA. The same user has Edit (Write) permission on FolderA and FolderB.
The user wants to move the document object from FolderA to FolderB.
Which statement is true?

A.    The user can move the document from FolderA to FolderB without acquiring additional permissions.
B.    The user must also have Delete permission on the document object and FolderA to move the document.
C.    The user must have Delete permission on the document object and both folders to move the document.
D.    The user must have Delete permission on both folders to move the document.

Answer: A

QUESTION 14
When renditions are managed along with the document object’s primary rendition, which statement is true?

A.    Renditions can be of any format but multiple renditions with the same format cannot exist.
B.    Renditions can be of any format but multiple renditions with the same format cannot exist within the same version.
C.    Renditions can be of any format.
D.    Renditions can be of any format that is not the same format as the primary rendition.

Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Which statement is true about the ability to drag and drop objects from within Webtop to the user’s local desktop?

A.    The feature works when multiple files are selected.
B.    The feature works only when the browser’s security level is set to Medium.
C.    The feature is enabled for all users by default.
D.    The feature is only available through the clipboard.

Answer: A

QUESTION 16
What can be subscribed to in the repository?

A.    A permission set
B.    An object type
C.    A group
D.    A folder

Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Where in Webtop can the default application for viewing objects be set?

A.    Preferences
B.    Tools menu
C.    Properties
D.    Advanced Search

Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Which type of authentication server could an engineer configure in order to provide the use of RSA token authentication as a permitted authentication method to access a AAA Virtual Server?

A.    LDAP
B.    SAML
C.    RADIUS
D.    Negotiate

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A company wants to implement a policy where all passwords should be encrypted while transiting the network. Where in the GUI would the network engineer prevent access to unsecured management protocols?

A.    Network -> IPs
B.    System -> Auditing
C.    AppExpert -> Pattern Sets
D.    Protection Features -> Filter

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Scenario: The NetScaler is configured with a NSIP of 10.20.30.40. Management access is NOT enabled on any other IP address. Which command should an engineer execute to prevent access to the NetScaler using HTTP and only allow HTTPS access?

A.    set ns ip 10.20.30.40 -gui disabled -telnet disabled
B.    set ip 10.20.30.40 -gui secureonly -mgmtaccess enabled
C.    set ip 10.20.30.40 -mgmtaccess disabled -gui secureonly
D.    set ns ip 10.20.30.40 -gui enabled -restrictAccess enabled

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Company policy states that all passwords should travel the network in encrypted packets except SNMP. Which command should the network engineer execute to comply with this policy?

A.    set ns ip 10.20.30.40 -ssh disabled -telnet disabled -gui enabled
B.    set ns ip 10.20.30.40 -telnet disabled -gui secureonly -ftp disabled
C.    set ns ip 10.20.30.40 -mgmtaccess disabled -restrictaccess enabled
D.    set ns ip 10.20.30.40 -gui secureonly -ssh enabled -restrictaccess enabled

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Scenario: The IT department in an organization manages servers and network devices from an internal management subnet. A Netscaler device has recently been installed into the DMZ network. The intranet firewall allows TCP 443 from the management subnet to the Netscaler device. How could the engineer ensure that only workstations in the management network are permitted to manage the Netscaler?

A.    Create an Extended ACL based on the source IP address.
B.    Create a restricted route from the internal network to the DMZ.
C.    Enable the management access control option on the NSIP address.
D.    Enable the management access control on the internal SNIP address.

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Scenario: An engineer has three subnets configured on a NetScaler appliance. The engineer must only allow a certain group of users to access a virtual server on the appliance. The IT Manager requires that all rules are flexible and can be easily modified for ease of administration. How could the engineer allow certain groups to access the virtual server while still being able to modify the setting in the future?

A.    Add a Simple ACL.
B.    Disable USNIP Mode.
C.    Create an Extended ACL.
D.    Add a Host Route to the virtual server.

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
A network engineer needs to configure load balancing for an FTP site. Which type of session persistence method can the engineer select for this scenario?

A.    Rule
B.    Source IP
C.    Cookie Insert
D.    Custom Server ID

Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Scenario: Example.com runs a dating service site that provides a service with videos of candidates. They want to use RTSP load balancing to stream the videos more effectively. Which load balancing method should the engineer select?

A.    Least packet
B.    Round Robin
C.    Least bandwidth
D.    Least connection

Answer: C

QUESTION 9
A network engineer wants to configure a NetScaler for load balancing Voice over IP traffic (VoIP).
Which hash method is the best fit for VoIP traffic?

A.    Call ID
B.    Source IP
C.    Destination IP
D.    Domain name

Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Scenario: A company has three HTTP servers that are load balanced using NetScaler. When users connect to the HTTP application they often receive inconsistent data or are advised that they need to log on again. Which step should the engineer take to correct this?

A.    Remove Down State Flush.
B.    Change the idle timeout value for the service.
C.    Configure persistence with appropriate timeouts.
D.    Change the global TCP Client Idle Time-Out value.

Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Scenario: A network engineer has configured a load balancing virtual server for an HTTP application. Due to the application architecture, it is imperative that a user’s session remains on a single server during the session. The session has an idle timeout of 60 minutes. Some devices are getting inconsistent application access while most are working fine. The problematic devices all have tighter security controls in place. Which step should the engineer take to resolve this issue?

A.    Set the cookie timeout to 60 minutes.
B.    Configure a backup persistence of SourceIP.
C.    Change the HTTP parameters to Cookie Version 1.
D.    Utilize SSL offload to enable the application to use SSL.

Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Scenario: An application that uses HTTP for connections and other protocols for different types of content has been deployed. Load balancing virtual servers have been created for each protocol and the engineer now needs to ensure that once a load balancing decision has occurred, further requests for different content are served from the same server. How could the engineer achieve this?

A.    Create a persistency group.
B.    Set the Spillover method to DYNAMICCONNECTION.
C.    Add a new virtual server for each protocol that is not directly addressable.
D.    Set each virtual server to use Source IP Hash as the load balancing method.

Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Scenario: Nether Tech’s corporate policy requires that passwords are NOT requested for XenApp passthrough connections, except for those that pertain to members of the Nursing Users group. Nurses connect to XenApp servers hosting applications in the Nurses Worker Group. Click the Exhibit button to view a list of the policies configured in the environment.
 clip_image001
An engineer needs to prioritize the three policies so that only members of the Nurses group are prompted for passwords when they connect to their XenApp resources. What is the correct order of prioritization for the policies from lowest to highest?

A.    Unfiltered, Nurses, Corporate Users
B.    Corporate Users, Nurses, Unfiltered
C.    Unfiltered, Corporate Users, Nurses
D.    Nurses, Unfiltered, Corporate Users

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Scenario: As part of the designs for the XenDesktop site and XenApp farm at Nether Tech, a Citrix Engineer is instructed to ensure that all auto-created printers use the Citrix Universal Printer Driver. As the deployment phase begins, a home user is experiencing issues printing to a locally attached printer. When print jobs are sent to the printer, the pages print, but only with strange characters on them. To resolve the user’s printing issue, the engineer should create a Citrix User policy and __________. (Choose the correct phrase to complete the sentence.)

A.    set a session printer to the user’s default printer
B.    set the client printer names to legacy printer names
C.    set the client printer names to standard printer names
D.    set PCL5c driver at the top of the Universal driver preference list

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Scenario: Nether Tech’s head office, which has over 400 employees, is located in the city center of Amsterdam, where the majority of the employees rely on public transport to travel to and from the office. During the winter, a significant amount of disruption is caused when staff cannot get into the office. Nether Tech wants to ensure that staff can connect to their corporate desktops from their home computers or corporate issued laptops during times of disruption. Nether Tech has a XenApp farm already. This farm can be accessed externally and all staff members have access. Nether Tech can only spare two virtual servers to facilitate a solution that will allow employees to access their own corporate physical desktops. Any solution must allow employees to work directly with their own corporate physical desktops. Which solution will best suit Nether Tech’s needs?

A.    Deploy two XenApp servers to the existing farm and publish the RDP client.
B.    Deploy two XenApp servers to the existing farm and publish a hosted desktop for all users.
C.    Deploy two desktop controllers to the existing farm and use XenDesktop to publish each user’s desktop.
D.    Deploy two desktop controllers servers to the existing farm and use XenApp to publish each user’s desktop.

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Scenario: An engineer has been instructed to implement a new XenApp farm. The IT Manager at Nether Tech wants idle sessions for server hosted applications to be disconnected after two hours and idle sessions for XenApp server hosted desktops to be disconnected after eight hours. There is a separate domain group policy which disconnects idle sessions after four hours. The XenApp servers hosting the server hosted desktops are in a worker group named Apps. The XenApp servers hosting the server hosted desktop are in a worker group named Desktops. Several Computer policies are configured in the environment. Click the Exhibit button to view the list of configured Computer policies.
 clip_image001[4]
Users are complaining that their idle sessions are disconnected after four hours. What must the engineer do to meet the requirements stated in the environment?

A.    Remove the Domain Group Policy.
B.    Disable Domain Group Policy Inheritance.
C.    Change the Domain Group Policy to 8 hours.
D.    Change the Domain Group Policy to 2 hours.

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Scenario: In order to complete the rollout of a new XenApp farm, a Citrix Engineer is required to set a policy to allow all client printers to auto-create for the domain group called Accounting Users. Their current unfiltered Citrix policy is configured to only auto-create the client’s default printer. The engineer must also ensure that any changes made will NOT affect other users in the farm. All the XenApp servers are in a single worker group. Which three actions must the engineer take to allow the Accounting Users group to receive all of their printers? (Choose three.)

A.    Increase the policy priority.
B.    Decrease the policy priority.
C.    Assign the policy to the Accounting User group.
D.    Assign the policy to the existing XenApp Worker group.
E.    Create a User policy and set the policy to allow the autocreation of all client printers.
F.    Create a Computer policy and set the policy to allow the autocreation of all client printers.

Answer: ACE

QUESTION 6
Scenario: Nether Tech is delivering Windows 7 virtual desktops to 1000 employees using XenDesktop in a XenServer hosting infrastructure that consists of 16 XenServer hosts. Provisioning Services is used to provide standard OS image streaming to the virtual desktops in standard image mode. The Citrix Engineer in the environment has observed a decrease in overall performance. Which two actions should the engineer take to increase performance? (Choose two.)

A.    Delete snapshots from the XenServer storage repository.
B.    Configure the vDisk write cache mode on the target device.
C.    Configure the vDisk write cache mode on the Provisioning Services server.
D.    Create a hard drive on the XenServer storage repository for each virtual machine.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 7
Scenario: Nether Tech has rolled out Windows Server 2008 XenApp published desktop to 1000 employees as their primary workspace since 2008. Recently the Citrix team has been receiving an increasing number of tickets on slow logons and logoffs and slow XenApp server performance. After further investigation, the Citrix team discovered low available disk space on the system drive of the XenApp servers. The majority of the disk space has been occupied by thousands of temporary Internet files and cookies on the local profile cache as well as in the roaming profile storage. The CIO of Nether Tech made a decision to discard the temporary Internet files and cookies but to keep the rest of the user profile information and reclaim local disk space. To accomplish this goal, the Citrix Engineer is looking to use Citrix Profile Management to replace Windows roaming profile. Which two group policy options in the Citrix profile management administrative template should the Citrix Engineer configure to accomplish this goal? (Choose two.)

A.    In profile handling, enable “Delete locally cached profiles on logoff”.
B.    In file system, configure exclusion list: local settings\temporary internet files.
C.    In Streamed user profiles, configure logon without the download temporary Internet files folder.
D.    In Advanced Settings, configure folder redirection: c:\users\%username%\local settings\temporary internet files.
E.    In file system, configure exclusion list: C:\Documents and Settings\%username%\microsoft\internet explorer\temporary internet files.

Answer: AB

QUESTION 8
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer plans to set up a regularly scheduled backup and archive implementation for five critical Windows 2008 Server R2 virtual machines. Each virtual machine must be backed up on a different day at the same time of day and archived to a safe place for extra security. Which two actions must the engineer take to configure the scheduled backup and archive implementation for these five virtual machines? (Choose two.)

A.    Automatically archive to a remote NFS share.
B.    Automatically archive to a remote EXT3 share.
C.    Automatically archive to a local XenServer share.
D.    Create one protection and recovery policy for all five virtual machines.
E.    Create five protection and recovery policies; one for each virtual machine.

Answer: AE

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