Category Archives: CompTIA Exam

2014 Latest CompTIA FC0-U11 Exam Demo Free Download!

QUESTION 1
You are working with a team that will be bringing in new computers to a sales department at a company. The sales team would like to keep not only their old files, but system settings as well on the new PC’s. What should you do?

A.    Do a system backup (complete) on each old machine, then restore it onto the new machines.
B.    Copy the files and the Windows Registry to a removable media then copy it onto the new machines.
C.    Use the User State Migration tool to move the system settings and files to the new machines.
D.    Use the Disk Management tool to move everything to the new computer.

Answer: C

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2014 Latest CompTIA CD0-001 Exam Dump Free Download!

QUESTION 1
During the presentation of a prototype, a customer realizes that it has left out a critical security component. The customer has already approved the software requirements. What is the appropriate next step for the consultant?

A.    Ask the customer for a change request form.
B.    Agree to make the changes needed at no cost.
C.    Ask the development team to make the changes.
D.    Inform the customer that no changes can be made.

Answer: A

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2014 Latest CompTIA CV0-001 Exam Dump Free Download!

QUESTION 1
After an administrator successfully migrated the last physical application server to a virtual environment, the help desk reported slow performance. Which of the following should the administrator have done FIRST before migrating this server?

A.    Apply operating system patches to the application server after the migration.
B.    Contact the vendor to see if the application is supported in a virtual environment.
C.    Take a backup of the application server after the migration.
D.    Migrate the application server in a test environment and have users test it.

Answer: B

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2014 Latest CompTIA TK0-201 Exam Dump Free Download!

QUESTION 1
After a training class was completed, the instructor conducted several passive on the job observations of each learner who attended the class. Which of the following is the primary benefit of the observations?

A.    It measures the application of the skills taught.
B.    It validates the quality of the course material.
C.    It requires the learners to use what they learned.
D.    It helps to reinforce the learning concepts.

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
An instructor asks an open-ended question to the class. Which of the following BEST describes the skill the instructor is demonstrating?

A.    Plan and use a variety of reinforcement techniques during training.
B.    Elicit learner feedback on the adequacy of instructor responses.
C.    Provide feedback that is specific to learners needs.
D.    Create opportunities for learners to contribute to the discussion.

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which of the following would be on an evaluation when seeking feedback concerning courseware material used during a class?

A.    Design of the courseware materials
B.    Accuracy of the courseware
C.    Cost of the courseware
D.    Instructor’s use of the courseware

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which of the following describes a form of feedback with the GREATEST positive impact?

A.    Suggestions that focus on procedures versus the concepts
B.    Measurable results from summative assessments
C.    Specific comments on errors with suggestions on how to improve
D.    Comparing learner performance with other learners

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
An instructor is conducting a review of written instructions and is aware that the preferred learning style of one of the learners is kinesthetic. Which of the following is the BEST choice for the instructor?

A.    Adjust the delivery of the review to include more graphs and charts as part of the exercise.
B.    Administer an exam to verify learner’s knowledge of the material.
C.    Deliver the curriculum as defined in the documentation so that the rest of the class does not fall behind.
D.    Adjust the delivery of the review to include a demonstration as part of the exercise.

Answer: D

QUESTION 6
During a computer software training class the projector fails. Which of the following should the instructor do FIRST?

A.    Attempt to quickly fix the projector.
B.    Move the class to another room.
C.    Take a class break and find another projector.
D.    Cancel the class and reschedule for a later date.

Answer: A

QUESTION 7
A company is preparing to roll-out a training course on advanced accounting skills. The company has asked a contract instructor to facilitate the course. The instructor has no background in accounting.
Which of the following should the instructor do?

A.    Ask to team teach the course with an expert
B.    Accept the offer contingent upon six weeks of preparation time
C.    Decline the offer based on lack of knowledge of accounting principles
D.    Accept the offer and learn the content by observing accounting experts

Answer: C

QUESTION 8
An instructor is conducting a virtual classroom with an international audience and finds that any single method used for delivery of the material leaves about a third of the learners uninvolved.
Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

A.    Send out a public message to the class asking which method of delivery is working best for the class
B.    Send out a private message to each learner asking which method of delivery is working best for them
C.    Query for commonalities amongst the learners,
D.    Continue to use multiple means of delivery

Answer: D

QUESTION 9
An instructor is beginning a course and wants to measure the level of expertise of the learners. Which of the following is the BEST method for measuring the level of understanding over the course material?

A.    Ask the learners about their level of understanding over the course material.
B.    Assume that the class has a medium level of understanding over the course material.
C.    Deliver a pre-test covering the course objectives.
D.    Ask another instructor who has taught the learners before.

Answer: C

QUESTION 10
An instructor is discussing key material for a course when a learner asks a question that will lead to material that the class is not yet prepared for. Which of the following is the BEST course of action for the instructor?

A.    Inform the learner that the question can be asked during a break
B.    Answer the question as not doing so may cause the learner to be confused.
C.    Defer the question and assure the learner that it will be covered later in the course.
D.    Inform the learner that the question falls outside of scope and will not be answered.

Answer: C

QUESTION 11
An instructor receives poor evaluations for a particular class. Which of the following should the instructor do FIRST to improve the performance?

A.    Read the comments to gain understanding of the low scores to find specific areas to work on.
B.    Re-develop the course from scratch.
C.    Practice the course in front of other instructors to receive direct feedback on how to improve.
D.    Contact each learner and ask for clarity on their responses.

Answer: A

QUESTION 12
An instructor is presenting to a class and notices that a particular learner is not paying attention; however, when the instructor gives a pop quiz, this learner earns the best grade. Which of the following BEST describes the situation?

A.    The quiz did not cover the class concepts effectively
B.    The learner has mastery of the information tested.
C.    The quiz motivated the learner.
D.    The answers to the pop quiz were distributed prior to class

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
At the end of a class, the instructor provides an online evaluation of the course to the learners. Which of the following is MOST appropriate to put on the evaluation? (Select TWO).

A.    Instructor’s presentation abilities
B.    Accessibility of the facility
C.    Technical accuracy of the course material
D.    Amount of time the learner studied for the course
E.    Job title of the learner

Answer: AC

QUESTION 14
An instructor delivering a class with thirty learners defines acceptable and non-acceptable behavior at the beginning of the class on the first day. The instructor also requests learners to be on time. The second day of class a few learners show up late to class. Which of the following is the BEST course of action to take to resolve this issue?

A.    Start the class and as each late learner comes in, thank them for joining the class.
B.    Wait to start the class until all the learners have arrived and are react to start.
C.    Once all the learners have arrived, remind the learners of all the class policies.
D.    Begin class on time and privately talk with the learners who were late.

Answer: D

QUESTION 15
An instructor has placed the learners into groups to discuss several topics. When the instructor walked around to monitor the group progress, the learners were off-task. Which of the following contributes MOST frequently to this situation?

A.    The learners were disinterested in group discussions about the topics.
B.    The learners were neither familiar with nor understood the assigned topics.
C.    The learners were not comfortable with the members of the group.
D.    The learners were ready for a break and the instructor failed to recognize this.

Answer: B
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2014 Latest CompTIA PK0-003 Exam Dump Free Download!

QUESTION 1
Which of the following are components of a project charter? (Select THREE).

A.    Communication requirements
B.    Risk assessment
C.    Project objectives
D.    Problem statement
E.    Stakeholder identification
F.    Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

Answer: CDE

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2014 Latest CompTIA CN0-201 Exam Dump Free Download!

QUESTION 1
Voice over IP is an application that requires efficient use of bandwidth and reliability. VoIP must not suffer the delays that can be seen at times with Web sites and Web applications. Which technology can be used to help ensure the efficient transport of VoIP traffic?

A.    RTP
B.    QoS
C.    DNS
D.    RSTP

Answer: B

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2014 Latest CompTIA CLO-001 Exam Dump Free Download!

QUESTION 1
Which of the following does IT outsourcing and cloud computing typically have in common?

A.    Pay as you go agreements
B.    Short-term financial commitment
C.    Tailor-made applications based on client needs
D.    Vendor lock-in potential

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which of the following does the server virtualization layer do?

A.    It allows the underling physical server hardware to be shared
B.    It allows the virtual machines to be dependent on each other
C.    It allows the virtual machines to be load balanced
D.    It prohibits the use of virtual machines by unauthorized users

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which of the following are essential steps to take when creating a virtual server?

A.    Select a machine image to run, select an application set to run, select security credentials.
B.    Select a machine image to run, select an application set to run, select the size of the virtual machine.
C.    Select a machine image to run, select security credentials, select the size of the virtual machine.
D.    Select an application set to run, select security credentials, select the size of the virtual machine.

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which of the following technologies are related to Web services?

A.    HTML, IDM, JSON
B.    HTML, IDM, XML
C.    HTML, JSON, XML
D.    DM, JSON, XML

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Web hosting is a service that enables customers to deploy a website quickly. This is an example
of:

A.    IaaS.
B.    SaaS
C.    PaaS.
D.    On-demand software.
E.    None of the above.

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which of the following describes the amount of data that can be sent across a link in a given time?

A.    Network bandwidth
B.    Network QoS
C.    Network latency
D.    Network speed

Answer: A

QUESTION 7
How can the internal IT department successfully react to cloud computing?

A.    By becoming an external cloud provider
B.    By becoming an internal cloud provider
C.    By outsourcing all IT services
D.    By solely focusing on security issues

Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which of the following is a business reason for IT outsourcing and cloud computing?

A.    Improving cost structure
B.    Improving customer satisfaction
C.    Increasing control over IT systems
D.    Decrease of security issues

Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which of the following assets have risks related to a cloud provider going out of business?

A.    Data stored at the provider
B.    Cloud management tools housed at the provider
C.    Investment in servers at the provider
D.    Machine capacity at the provider

Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is included in a compliance audit?

A.    Analyzing chargeback agreements
B.    Analyzing cloud provider Service Level Agreements (SLAs)
C.    Analyzing identity management and access controls
D.    Analyzing the provider release calendar

Answer: C

QUESTION 11
How does cloud computing influence service operations?

A.    Cloud computing is more cost effective
B.    The provisioning of servers and services is quicker or ceases to be an issue
C.    The provisioning of servers and services can be much slower
D.    The security level will increase

Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Cloud computing brings new challenges to ___________ management, because traditional licensing models do not fit well with scalable resources.

A.    commercial
B.    financial
C.    legal
D.    service

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which of the following is indicated by a high number of variations of different virtual servers?

A.    Lack of an automated provisioning process of the virtual machines
B.    Lack of automation of virtual machine image manufacturing
C.    Lack of manpower to monitor the virtual machines
D.    Lack of physical servers to accommodate the different virtual servers

Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Cloud computing is priced according to ___________ or has ___________, rather than having upfront costs.

A.    recurring subscription, a yearly contract
B.    a yearly contract, usage-based charges
C.    recurring subscription, usage-based charges
D.    number of users, a yearly contract

Answer: C
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2014 Latest CompTIA CAS-001 Exam Dump Free Download!

QUESTION 1
At 10:35 a.m. a malicious user was able to obtain a valid authentication token which allowed read/write access to the backend database of a financial company. At 10:45 a.m. the security administrator received multiple alerts from the company’s statistical anomaly-based IDS about a company database administrator performing unusual transactions. At 10:55 a.m. the security administrator resets the database administrator’s password.
At 11:00 a.m. the security administrator is still receiving alerts from the IDS about unusual transactions from the same user. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of the alerts?

A.    The IDS logs are compromised.
B.    The new password was compromised.
C.    An input validation error has occurred.
D.    A race condition has occurred.

Answer: D

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2014 Latest CompTIA 225-030 Exam Dump Free Download!

QUESTION 1
What items need to be evaluated when choosing a scanner?

A.    Documents, images, and storage medium
B.    Resolution, compression, and memory
C.    Workflow, ease of use, and productivity
D.    Interface, resolution, and paper handling

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
When designing the input environment for the proposed Document Management System (DMS), which of the following MUST be considered?

A.    Index fields
B.    Storage media
C.    Type of printers
D.    Postscript (PS)

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Company.com needs to deliver objects over the web and ensure that only the authorized user can view them even if disconnected from the system. What technology would apply?

A.    Storage management
B.    Digital Rights Management (DRM)
C.    Watermarking
D.    Web control management

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Company.com would like to capture incoming invoices and process them through their Accounts Payable (AP) system. Which system would BEST accomplish this?

A.    Image enabled workflow oriented system
B.    SQL database system
C.    Intranet based form processing system
D.    Records management system

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
An accounting firm stores electronic images of its clients tax returns in the Electronic Document Management System (EDMS). The company should be MOST concerned with:

A.    document format.
B.    network security.
C.    application integration.
D.    network bandwidth.

Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Many of the documents to be scanned by Company.com are sales invoices with a yellow background. A feature of the proposed scanning solution should include:

A.    image enhancement.
B.    deskew.
C.    color dropout.
D.    color enhancement.

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
A potential risk to a project could be:

A.    regular Project Manager meetings.
B.    a risk analysis session.
C.    creating an assumptions document.
D.    allowing scope creep.

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
A client receives over 2,000 laser printed purchase orders daily from 1,188 customers. The scanning staff will scan, index, and perform quality assurance of the documents. Which of the following is the LEAST labor intensive method to perform indexing?

A.    ICR software
B.    Optical Mark Recognition (OMR) software
C.    OCR software
D.    Heads-down indexing

Answer: C

QUESTION 9
All of the following are routing features of production workflow EXCEPT:

A.    work monitoring.
B.    pending or holding items.
C.    support for multiple queues based on work type.
D.    sorting queues in date order.

Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which of the following are elements of a communication plan?

A.    All-hands meetings and intranet postings
B.    Ethernet and TCP / IP
C.    E-mail and FTP
D.    Project charter and project plan

Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Assuming an average image size of 105 KB, a 700 MB CD -R contains how many images?

A.    10,826
B.    7,580
C.    6,826
D.    15,020

Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which of the following is required as part of a records storage management solution?

A.    Full-text search and retrieval
B.    Boxes of paper
C.    Retention schedule
D.    Enterprise content management software

Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Company.com is generating 10,000 documents a month and is considering if they should goforward with an Electronic Document Management (EDM) solution or continue with the existing paper-based storage strategy. Considering the cost of both strategies the customer should:

A.    select the EDM solution because it is more expensive in the long term.
B.    select the EDM solution because it is more expensive but easier to implement and has greater
long term benefits.
C.    select the EDM solution because it is more expensive in the near term but becomes less expensive
in the long term.
D.    stay with the current solution because it is considerably less expensive in the long term.

Answer: C

QUESTION 14
A Request For Proposal (RFP) includes a workflow requirement for reassigning work. What feature ensures that work can be or has been reassigned?

A.    Error handling
B.    Scan-to-folder
C.    Records management
D.    Tracking capability

Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Company.com is performing incremental backups nightly. At the end of the month they review a list of documents that have reached their end of life and determine if they can be destroyed. Which of the following BEST describes the records storage management process?

A.    The customer has a document capture process.
B.    The customer does not have a records management process.
C.    The customer has a formal records storage management process.
D.    The customer has an informal records management process.

Answer: C
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2014 Latest CompTIA ADR-001 Exam Dump Free Download!

QUESTION 1
An architectural review is BEST for finding which of the following security defects?

A.    Malware infection vectors
B.    SQL or other injection flaws
C.    Design flaws
D.    Zero-day vulnerabilities

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which of the following describes a security risk that may have to be accepted when using a commercial cross-platform mobile application framework?

A.    Allowing code to run outside the app sandbox
B.    Installing HTML 5 support on user device
C.    Digest authentication without HTTPS
D.    Using native code libraries without source code review

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
In an application architecture diagram, what categories of weaknesses are considered using Microsoft’s threat modeling process?

A.    Man-in-the-middle, Data injection, SQL Injection, Malware, Zero-day exploits
B.    Damage, Reproducibility, Exploitability, Affected users, Discoverability
C.    Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information disclosure, Denial of service, Elevation of privilege
D.    Cross site scripting, Clickjacking, Data input validation, SSL, RSA security, Buffer overflow, Heap smashing, ARP injection

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Android’s kernel-level app sandbox provides security by:

A.    assigning a unique user ID (UID) to each app and running in a separate process.
B.    running all apps under an unprivileged group ID (GID).
C.    restricting read access to an app’s package to the kernel process.
D.    preventing an app’s data files from being read by any running process.

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
The digital certificate used to sign the production release should be:

A.    regenerated for each version of the app.
B.    stored inside the app package before deployment.
C.    stored in a secure location separate from the passphrase.
D.    stored with the source code so all developers can build the app.

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which statement about native code in apps is TRUE?

A.    Native code is faster because it runs as a separate user ID (UID) giving it direct access to restricted APIs.
B.    Native code is run under the same user ID (UID) as the Java app and therefore comes under the same sandbox restrictions.
C.    Native code is executed by the kernel with increased privileges and is mainly used for root operations.
D.    Native code runs outside the Dalvik VM and therefore is not restricted by the sandbox.

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
When an app creates a configuration file in its private data directory the developer should ensure:

A.    that the file path is determined with getExternalStorageDirectory().
B.    that the file is created world writable.
C.    that file ownership is set to system.
D.    that the file is not created world readable.

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
An example of APIs protected by permissions would bE. (Select TWO).

A.    SIM card access
B.    Telephony functions
C.    File handling functions
D.    Encryption functions
E.    Network/data connections

Answer: BE

QUESTION 9
An app accessing protected APIs should use which manifest declaration?

A.    app-permissions
B.    add-permissions
C.    grant-permission
D.    uses-permission

Answer: D

QUESTION 10
The MOST likely reason the developer might want to define their own permission in the manifest is because:

A.    they wish to ensure that only their app has the permission to launch their activities or access their private data.
B.    they wish to prevent the user from granting access to protected functionality by mistake.
C.    they wish to define a permission to access system APIs and native libraries.
D.    they wish to restrict access to a function in their app to only those apps which are specifically granted access by the user.

Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Valid permission protection levels are. (Select TWO).

A.    private
B.    signature
C.    user
D.    public
E.    dangerous

Answer: BE

QUESTION 12
The checkCallingPermission() method is used when:

A.    the app needs to determine what permission is required for it to make a call.
B.    the app needs to determine if it should allow an incoming call from another app.
C.    the app needs to determine whether it has permission to make a call.
D.    the app needs to determine what permissions are required to call a specific API.

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which of the following is a more secure way for a developer to give 3rd party apps temporary access to resources in their app, such as opening attachments in an external editor?

A.    Make use of grantTempAccess()
B.    Make use of per-URI permissions
C.    Temporarily make files world readable
D.    Temporarily store files on SD Card

Answer: B

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2014 Latest CompTIA 220-701 Exam Dump Free Download!

QUESTION 1
A technician installs an additional hard drive controller. Which of the following processes will MOST likely prevent errors?

A.    1) Apply System Updates
2) Update the BIOS
3) Install the card
4) Install the driver
5) Upgrade the Card Firmware
B.    1) Install the card
2) Update the BIOS
3) Upgrade the Card Firmware
4) Install the driver
5) Apply System Updates
C.    1) Apply System Updates
2) Install the driver
3) Install the card
4) Upgrade the Card Firmware
5) Update the BIOS
D.    1) Update the BIOS
2) Install the driver
3) Install the card
4) Upgrade the Card Firmware
5) Apply System Updates

Answer: A

QUESTION 2
What is the MINIMUM Windows Experience Index recommended for using Aero enhancements in Windows 7?

A.    2.0
B.    3.0
C.    4.0
D.    5.0

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
On a Windows XP machine, which of the following settings should be configured to allow dragging of files without holding the mouse button?

A.    ScrollLock
B.    StickyKeys
C.    MouseKeys
D.    ClickLock

Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which of the following utilities would be used to configure energy saving measures when a laptop switches to battery power?

A.    MSTSC
B.    ACPI
C.    GDI
D.    MSCONFIG

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
A user states that they unplugged their mouse to clean the roller ball, but after plugging it back in the mouse no longer functions. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?

A.    The mouse has a PS/2 connector which is not hot-swappable.
B.    The mouse roller ball is now too smooth to gain traction.
C.    The mouse was broken before the user unplugged to clean it.
D.    The mouse has a USB connector that is not getting enough power.

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which of the following features are available in Windows 7 Professional beyond those available in Windows 7 Home Premium?

A.    HomeGroup
B.    Windows XP Mode
C.    Aero Desktop
D.    Internet Explorer 8

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Traffic coming across port 443 is for which of the following protocols?

A.    SFTP
B.    FTP
C.    HTTP
D.    HTTPS

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which of the following security threats are MOST likely prevented through user training?

A.    Network Intrusion
B.    Adware Popups
C.    Social Engineering
D.    Spam Messages

Answer: C

QUESTION 9
A user states that whenever they try to launch a certain installed application, they hear unusual whirring/clicking sounds from their machine and the application never loads. Which of the following components would a technician MOST likely need to replace?

A.    Hard Disk Drive
B.    Optical Drive
C.    Power Supply Unit
D.    Case Fan

Answer: A

QUESTION 10
A user states that they are trying to project their laptop to a screen for a presentation. They have plugged the projector cable into their laptop, and turned the projector on, but no signal is found. Which of the following should the technician perform FIRST?

A.    Ensure the projector is receiving power
B.    Verify the laptop is not running on battery
C.    Toggle the function key for displays
D.    Replace the projector cable with another

Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which of the following are supported bus widths for a PCIe bus slot? (Select TWO).

A.    1x
B.    3x
C.    6x
D.    16x
E.    24x

Answer: AD

QUESTION 12
Which of the following BEST describes the function of hyperthreading support within a CPU?

A.    Allows the core to create a separate space to process threads
B.    Allows the processor to handle multiple threads per core
C.    Allows the core to shift to a higher clock speed based on thread count
D.    Allows the processor to reject certain threads to increase performance

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which of the following is the MOST likely default configuration for a serial port?

A.    8 Data bits, Odd Parity, 1 stop bit
B.    8 Data bits, Even Parity, 2 stop bits
C.    8 Data bits, No Parity, 1.5 Stop bits
D.    8 Data bits, No Parity, 1 Stop bit

Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which of the following are impact printers? (Select TWO).

A.    Line printer
B.    Dot matrix printer
C.    Thermal transfer printer
D.    Inkjet printer
E.    Xerographic printer

Answer: AB

QUESTION 15
After creating backups of critical system and user data, which of the following is the BEST location to store the backups?

A.    In the supply closet so anyone can access them if needed
B.    Near the server for easy access to restore files
C.    Locked in a cabinet in the IT Manager’s office
D.    At a secure off-site storage facility

Answer: D
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QUESTION 1
Which of the following is the access level of a user that belongs to both the Administrators and Users groups?

A.    User
B.    Administrator
C.    Power User
D.    Remote Desktop User

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which of the following contains the user profile directory for Microsoft Windows 2000 and XP?

A.    Users
B.    My Documents
C.    Documents and Settings
D.    Application Data

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Two users share the same Windows 7 computer. The first user creates a document intended to be used by both users, and then logs off. The second user logs on and types the name of the document in the Start menu, but the document is not found. Which of the following is the problem?

A.    The document is set to hidden.
B.    The document is locked.
C.    The document was saved as a system document.
D.    The document is owned by the first user.

Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which of the following will MOST likely happen if a laser printer displays `15% fuser remaining’?

A.    The printer will print according to specification.
B.    The printer will stop printing immediately.
C.    The printer will take longer to print.
D.    The printer will print blank sheets of paper.

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which of the following should the technician do FIRST when removing a paper jam?

A.    Open all the doors in the printer.
B.    Clear the print queue.
C.    Turn the printer off.
D.    Take the printer offline.

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which of the following does an out-of-memory error indicate on a printer?

A.    A faulty memory module in the printer.
B.    A postscript print job has been sent to the printer.
C.    A large print job has been sent to the printer.
D.    The printer firmware needs to be updated.

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
A home user wants to setup a wireless network. Which of the following would be the MOST important consideration?

A.    Operating system type of the connected PCs
B.    Location of the wireless router
C.    Number of PCs that will access the network
D.    Number of available Ethernet ports on the router

Answer: B

QUESTION 8
A technician suspects the AC voltage into a PC power supply is bad. Which of the following tools would MOST likely be used to confirm the diagnosis?

A.    Multimeter
B.    Oscilloscope
C.    Cable tester
D.    Power supply tester

Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A technician needs to ping a client’s machine that the technician is working on, to ensure that the network card is functioning correctly. Which of the following IP addresses should be used?

A.    10.76.0.1
B.    127.0.0.1
C.    192.168.0.1
D.    255.255.255.0

Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which of the following are encrypted protocols? (Select TWO).

A.    TELNET
B.    SSH
C.    POP3
D.    FTP
E.    HTTPS

Answer: BE

QUESTION 11
Which of the following network modifications should be implemented to extend the wireless network range and allow out-of-range users to share the Internet connection?

A.    Create a new VLAN for the out-of-range users.
B.    Add a wireless access point for the out-of-range users.
C.    Upgrade the out-of-range users’ SSID searching software.
D.    Enable network sharing on the users’ computers that are within range.

Answer: B

QUESTION 12
A technician turns on a PC and before the computer boots up, the technician is prompted for a password. The technician does not know the password. Which of the following can the technician do to allow access to the PC? (Select TWO).

A.    Set the clear password jumper on the motherboard.
B.    Enter the BIOS setup and select the clear password setting.
C.    Remove the power cord from the power supply and then plug it back in.
D.    Power cycle the PC.
E.    Remove the CMOS battery for 15 minutes.

Answer: AE

QUESTION 13
A technician is renaming files on a PC from a command prompt and is currently in the root of drive
C:. Which of the following commands should the technician use to move to a different directory?

A.    CD
B.    DIR
C.    MD
D.    RD

Answer: A

QUESTION 14
A technician is dispatched to a malware infected system. Upon arrival, the technician notices the malware’s pop-up on the screen. Which of the following boot methods would the technician utilize?

A.    Reboot in Safe Mode
B.    Reboot in Recovery Console
C.    Reboot in Last Known Good Configuration
D.    Reboot in System Debug Mode

Answer: A

QUESTION 15
A technician is dispatched to a system that will not go beyond the Windows XP splash screen. Which of the following, after restart, would allow the technician to load Windows XP?

A.    Press F6, select Last Known Good Configuration, login
B.    Press F8, select Debug mode, login
C.    Press F8, select Last Known Good Configuration, login
D.    Press F6, select Debug mode, login

Answer: C
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QUESTION 1
You need to generate a report on all of the Exchange Server 2007 computers in your Exchange organization. The report must include:
– Operating system versionNumber of processors
– Total physical memory
– Number of storage groups
– Number of mailbox databases
What should you do?

A.    Run the Get-ExchangeServer | Format-List cmdlet.
B.    Run the Get-OrganizationConfig cmdlet.
C.    Run the Test-SystemHealth cmdlet.
D.    Run the Health Check scan in the Exchange Best Practices Analyzer.

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
After a brief network outage, your monitoring system alerts you that a significant number of SMTP queues on your Hub Transport server are in a retry status. You need to force the Hub Transport
server to send the queued e-mail immediately. Which cmdlet should you run?

A.    Retry-queue -filter {status -eq “retry”}
B.    Retry-queue -filter {status -eq “suspended”}
C.    Resume-queue -filter {status -eq “retry”}
D.    Resume-queue -filter {status -eq “suspended”}

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Some of your companys mobile sales representatives use portable computers that run Microsoft Office Outlook 2007 and are configured to connect to your Exchange Server 2007 organization by using Outlook Anywhere. You need to monitor your environment to verify that these mobile users are able to connect to the Exchange organization, and that performance meets or exceeds the company standard. Which two cmdlets should you run? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Test-MAPIConnectivity
B.    Test-OutlookWebServices
C.    Test-WebServicesConnectivity
D.    Test-ServiceHealth
E.    Get-MailboxStatistics

Answer: AC

QUESTION 4
The servers in your Exchange Server 2007 environment are configured as shown in the following table.
 clip_image001[16]
Internal users report that they are not receiving external e-mail. You use the Exchange Queue Viewer on your desktop computer to investigate the problem. You do not see any messages in the queue.
You need to be able to view the undelivered messages.
What should you do?

A.    Open the Queue Viewer on Server2.
B.    Run the Get-Queue -Identity Server3 cmdlet.
C.    Modify the Refresh interval (seconds) option in Queue Viewer.
D.    Modify the Number of items to display per page option in Queue Viewer.

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Your native Exchange Server 2007 organization contains 10 Exchange servers. The roles on these servers are configured as shown in the following table.
 clip_image001[18]
You need to generate a single report that indicates the number of disconnected mailboxes in your environment and how much storage space these mailboxes consume. You need to export the report to a file.
What should you do?

A.    Run the Get-MailboxServer | Get-MailboxStatistics | Where {$_.DisconnectDate -ne $null} | Export-Csv -Path c:\tmp\disconnect.csv cmdlet.
B.    Run the Get-Mailbox | Get-MailboxStatistics | Where {$_.DisconnectDate -ne $null} | Export-Csv -Path c:\tmp\disconnect.csv cmdlet.
C.    Run the Get-Recipient -RecipientType MailboxUser | Export-Csv -Path c:\tmp\disconnect.csv cmdlet. Then, open disconnect.csv and remove all entries for active mailboxes.
D.    In the Exchange Management Console, expand the Recipient Configuration work center and select the Disconnected Mailbox node.

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
You want to gather information about user connectivity on an Exchange Server 2007 Mailbox server named Exch1. You need to generate a report of all Exch1 mailboxes that displays the latest user logon time. What should you do?

A.    In Performance Monitor, add the Active Client Logons counter with _Total instances from the MSExchangeIS Mailbox object.
B.    Run the Get-Mailbox -Server Exch1 cmdlet.
C.    Run the Get-MailboxStatistics -Server Exch1 cmdlet.
D.    Run the Get-LogonStatistics -Server Exch1 cmdlet.

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Your Exchange Server 2007 organization has three Exchange servers, as shown in the following table.
 clip_image001[20]
A user in your Exchange organization sends a message to a recipient outside of your company. The recipients address is marc@contoso.com, and Latest Sales Figures is the subject of the message. Your user reports that the message has not been delivered. You need to find out whether the message has left your Exchange organization. Which cmdlet should you run on the Hub Transport server?

A.    Get-Recipient -Filter {PrimarySmtpAddress -eq “marc@contoso.com”}
B.    Get-Message -Filter {Subject -eq “Latest Sales Figures”}
C.    Get-Queue -Filter {NextHopDomain -eq “contoso.com”}
D.    Get-queue -Filter {status -eq “retry”}

Answer: B

QUESTION 8
You need to find out the total size of a users mailbox. What should you do?

A.    Run the Database Troubleshooter in the Exchange Troubleshooting Assistant.
B.    Run the Get-MailboxDatabase cmdlet.
C.    Run the Get-MailboxStatistics cmdlet.
D.    Run the Get-Mailbox cmdlet.

Answer: C

QUESTION 9
You have an Exchange Server 2007 environment. You need to create a performance baseline report. What should you do?

A.    In the Exchange Best Practices Analyzer, run the Health Check scan.
B.    In the Exchange Best Practices Analyzer, run the Connectivity Test scan.
C.    In the Exchange Best Practices Analyzer, run the Exchange 2007 Readiness Check scan.
D.    Use the Performance Troubleshooter tool.

Answer: A

QUESTION 10
The Hub Transport server role resides on an Exchange Server 2007 computer named ExchHub1. Message tracking is enabled. Written company privacy policy states that the subject line of e-mail messages should not be stored in the tracking log. You need to track e-mail messages from ExchHub1 while complying with company policy. Which cmdlet should you run?

A.    Set-TransportServer ExchHub1 -MessageTrackingLogEnabled:$false
B.    Set-TransportServer ExchHub1 MessageTrackingLogSubjectLoggingEnabled:$false
C.    Set-ReceiveConnector -ProtocolLoggingLevel None
D.    Get-MessageTrackingLog -Subject None

Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Your Exchange Server 2007 organization contains two Exchange servers. The roles on the two servers are configured as shown in the following table.
 clip_image001[22]
Two users named Marc and Maria have mailboxes on ExchMb1. Marcs computer is on segment A. Marias computer is on segment B. The Exchange servers are on segment C. Marc sends a message to Maria. The message leaves Marcs Outbox and is listed in his Sent Items folder. However, the message is never delivered to Maria’s mailbox. You need to find out the most likely cause of the problem.
What should you do?

A.    On ExchMb1, run the Test-ServiceHealth cmdlet.
B.    On ExchHub1, run the Test-ServiceHealth cmdlet.
C.    On ExchMb1, run the Test-MAPIConnectivity -Server ExchMb1 cmdlet.
D.    On a computer on segment A, run the Test-MAPIConnectivity -Server ExchMb1 cmdlet.

Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Your environment consists of servers that have either Exchange Server 2007 or Exchange Server 2003 installed. You create a policy to restrict the number of recipients that are allowed per message. You need to ensure that the policy is enforced for all users. What should you do?

A.    Set organizational limits.
B.    Set server limits.
C.    Set global limits.
D.    Set connector limits.

Answer: C

QUESTION 13
You are preparing to configure e-mail retention on three managed custom folders for all mailboxes on an Exchange Server 2007 computer named Exch1.
You perform the following actions.
Create three managed custom folders.
Create managed content settings for each folder, and configure the required retention settings. Create a new managed folder mailbox policy named MailRet. Add each managed custom folder to the MailRet policy.
Configure the managed folder assistant for Exch1.
You need to finish configuring the messaging records management (MRM) retention settings so that the three folders are available for the mailboxes on Exch1.
What should you do?

A.    For each mailbox on Exch1, select the Enable retention hold for items in this mailbox check box.
B.    For each mailbox on Exch1, add the MailRet policy.
C.    Add managed content settings to the three managed custom folders.
D.    Create a new managed folder mailbox policy for each of the three managed custom folders.

Answer: B

QUESTION 14
A new virus is discovered in your Exchange Server 2007 organization. The file extension is .ext for this virus. The current settings for attachment filtering are configured to delete specified attachments and allow the message to be delivered. However, the virus files are not being filtered. You must stop the spread of this new virus. Neither the attachment nor the e-mail message should reach the e-mail recipient. The message that contains the virus should not generate a non-delivery report (NDR). You need to add a filter for the file extension of the virus. Which two cmdlets should you run? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    Add-AttachmentFilterEntry -Name *.ext -type ContentType
B.    Add-AttachmentFilterEntry -Name *.ext -type FileName
C.    Set-AttachmentFilterListConfig -Action Reject -RejectMessage “None”
D.    Set-AttachmentFilterListConfig -Action SilentDelete

Answer: BD

QUESTION 15
Your company has five Active Directory sites that are configured as shown in the exhibit.
(Click the Exhibit button.)
Each site has an Exchange Server 2007 Mailbox server and Hub Transport server. Currently all outbound e-mail traffic goes through the New York site. You need to reconfigure the mail flow so that all outbound e-mail messages that are sent from users in the Seattle office are sent out of your Exchange organization through ExchHub5 in the Chicago office.
Which cmdlet should you run?
 clip_image002

A.    Set-AdsiteLink -Id DNVR-CHI -ADCost 5
B.    Set-AdSite -Identity Chicago -HubSiteEnabled:$true
C.    New-SendConnector -Name ‘Chicago’ -AddressSpaces:’smtp:*;1′ -DNSRoutingEnabled:$true -SourceTransportServers:’ExchHub5′
D.    Set-SendConnector -Identity ‘Seattle’ -AddressSpaces:’smtp:*;1′ -DNSRoutingEnabled:$false -SourceTransportServers:’ExchHub1′

Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Your companys Microsoft ActiveSync policy is configured to require inactive users to provide their password every 10 minutes. A company executive requests that her mobile device be exempt from the inactivity timer. You need to exempt the executives mobile device from the timeout policy while maintaining the other corporate policy settings. What should you do?

A.    Remove the corporate ActiveSync policy from the executives mailbox.
B.    Create a new ActiveSync policy that has the required settings, and apply it to the executives mailbox.
C.    Change the password setting on the executives mobile device to override the ActiveSync policy.
D.    Reconfigure the executives mobile device for ActiveSync, and do not apply the corporate ActiveSync policy.

Answer: B

QUESTION 17
You need to configure a public folder to replicate on only Saturdays and Sundays. You also need to ensure that posts will be denied after the folders size reaches 500 MB. Which cmdlet should you run for the public folder?

A.    Set-PublicFolder -StorageQuota 500MB -ReplicationSchedule “Saturday.12:00 AM-Sunday.11:59 PM”
B.    Set-PublicFolder -PostStorageQuota 500MB -ReplicationSchedule “Saturday.12:00 AM-Sunday.11:59 PM”
C.    Set-PublicFolder -MaxItemSize 500MB -ReplicationSchedule “Saturday.12:00 AM-Sunday.11:59 PM”
D.    Set-PublicFolder -PostStorageQuota 500MB -UseDatabaseRetentionDefaults: $true

Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Your company normally does not allow out-of-office messages to be sent to users outside of your Exchange 2007 organization. The company makes an exception for a business partner named Northwind Traders. The SMTP domain for Northwind Traders is northwindtraders.com. You need to configure your Exchange organization to allow out-of-office messages to be sent to e-mail addresses in the northwindtraders.com domain. What should you do?

A.    Add northwindtraders.com as a remote domain and set the appropriate options.
B.    Add northwindtraders.com as an accepted domain and set the appropriate options.
C.    Create a transport rule and set the appropriate options.
D.    Create a Send connector for northwindtraders.com and set the appropriate options.

Answer: A

QUESTION 19
You are preparing to configure Outlook Anywhere on your existing Exchange Server 2007 organization. A Mailbox server named ExchMb1 contains all of the mailboxes that will be accessed by users who use Outlook Anywhere. A Client Access server named ExchCas1 is available from the Internet. Users will access Outlook Anywhere with mail.contoso.com as the host (A) name. You need to configure the Exchange organization so that Outlook Anywhere can be used by Microsoft Office Outlook clients from the Internet. Which three actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)

A.    Install RPC over HTTP Proxy on ExchCas1.
B.    Install a valid SSL certificate for ExchMb1 on the default Web site.
C.    Install a valid SSL certificate for ExchCas1 on the default Web site.
D.    Install RPC over HTTP Proxy on ExchMb1.
E.    Run the Enable-OutlookAnywhere -Server:ExchCas1 -ExternalHostName:mail.contoso.com -SSLOffLoading:$false -ExternalAuthenticationMethod:Basic cmdlet.
F.    Run the Enable-OutlookAnywhere -Server:ExchMb1 -ExternalHostName:mail.contoso.com -SSLOffLoading:$true -ExternalAuthenticationMethod:Basic cmdlet.

Answer: ACE
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QUESTION 1
When attempting to send a file to another user securely with GPG, which of the following actions must be done?

A.    Encrypt the file using your public key.
B.    Encrypt the file using their public key.
C.    Encrypt the file using your private key.
D.    Encrypt the file using their private key.
E.    Sign the file with your public key.

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
In xorg.conf, which of the following sections is concerned with fonts?

A.    The Fonts section
B.    The Files section
C.    The xfsCodes section
D.    The Graphics section
E.    The modeline section

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which of the following outputs will the below command sequence produce? echo ‘1 2 3 4 5 6’ | while read a b c; do echo result: $c $b $a; done

A.    result: 3 4 5 6 2 1
B.    result: 1 2 3 4 5 6
C.    result: 6 5 4
D.    result: 6 5 4 3 2 1
E.    result: 3 2 1

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
X is running okay but an administrator is concerned that the correct color depth set is not configured. Which of the following commands will show the administrator the running color depth while in X?

A.    xcd
B.    xcdepth
C.    xwininfo
D.    xcolordepth
E.    cat /etc/X11

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which of the following words is used to restrict the records that are returned from a SELECT query based on supplied criteria for the values in the records?

A.    LIMIT
B.    FROM
C.    WHERE
D.    IF

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which of the following outputs will the command seq 10 produce?

A.    A continuous stream of numbers increasing in increments of 10 until stopped.
B.    The numbers 1 through 10 with one number per line.
C.    The numbers 0 though 9 with one number per line.
D.    The number 10 to standard output.

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which of the following is the purpose of the Sticky Keys feature in X?

A.    To assist users who have difficulty holding down multiple keys at once
B.    To prevent repeated input of a single character if the key is held down
C.    To ignore brief keystrokes according to a specified time limit
D.    To repeat the input of a single character

Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which of the following commands can be used to activate a specific network interface?

A.    ipup
B.    net
C.    ifup
D.    netup

Answer: C

QUESTION 9
An administrator is looking into a new script that they have just received from a senior administrator. In the very first line the administrator notices a #! followed by a path to a binary.
Linux will:

A.    ignore the script.
B.    use that binary to interpret the script.
C.    use that binary to compile the script.
D.    be replaced by that binary.

Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which of the following commands should be used to print a listing of emails in the system’s mail queue?

A.    sendmail -l
B.    lpq
C.    mailq
D.    mlq

Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Each entry in a crontab must end with which of the following characters?

A.    tab
B.    space
C.    backslash
D.    newline

Answer: D

QUESTION 12
A department decided to change the Gnome Display Manager’s greeting. Which of the following configuration files should an administrator edit?

A.    /etc/gnome/greeting
B.    /opt/gnome/share/greeting
C.    /etc/X11/gmd.conf
D.    /etc/X11/gdm/Init/Default

Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which of the following are commonly used Mail Transfer Agent (MTA) applications? (Select THREE).

A.    postfix
B.    procmail
C.    sendmail
D.    exim
E.    smtpd

Answer: ACD

QUESTION 14
On a dual boot system, every time the system is booted back into Linux the time has been set backward by two hours. Which of the following commands will correct the problem so it will not occur again?

A.    ntpdate pool.ntp.org
B.    date -d ‘two hours’
C.    hwclock –hctosys –localtime
D.    time hwclock

Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Which of the following files, when using Sendmail or a similar MTA system, will allow a user to redirect all their mail to another address and is configurable by the user themselves?

A.    /etc/alias
B.    /etc/mail/forwarders
C.    ~/.alias
D.    ~/.forward

Answer: D
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QUESTION 1
An administrator is attempting to recover corrupted data from a four disk RAID group. However, the administrator does not know which RAID level was used. When investigating the volumes, the administrator notes that there is a duplicate of all data on two of the disks. Which of the following RAID levels was in use?

A.    RAID 0
B.    RAID 5
C.    RAID 6
D.    RAID 10

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Given an array with sixteen 300GB drives, a storage administrator needs to know how much raw usable space can be made available while still maintaining a highly available RAID configuration with two hot spares. Which of the following is the MAXIMUM capacity that can be allocated and at which RAID level?

A.    2.1TB, RAID 1
B.    3.6TB, RAID 6
C.    3.9TB, RAID 5
D.    4.8TB, RAID 0

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
When gathering simple baseline statistics for a storage array, a storage administrator should gather which of the following? (Select TWO).

A.    Read/Write errors
B.    Number of switches connected
C.    Reads/Writes performed
D.    Read/Write throughput
E.    Port loss of signal counts

Answer: CD

QUESTION 4
A server has dual power supplies, dual mirrored hard drives, multi-pathed multiple NICs, and a dual port HBA for access into a SAN. Which of the following components is a single point of failure?

A.    Power supplies
B.    HBA
C.    NICs
D.    System hard drives

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
A new storage array is being cabled into a rack. The array has dual controllers, each disk tray has dual power supplies, and there are two in-rack PDUs (C and D). Which of the following is the BEST method for hooking up power?

A.    Connect controller A’s PSUs to PDU C, controller B’s PSUs to D, alternate drive trays between PDUs C and D.
B.    Connect all drive tray PSUs to C and all controller PDUs to D.
C.    Connect both controller’s PSUs to C and all drive tray PSUs to D.
D.    Split all PSU connections between C and D equally.

Answer: D

QUESTION 6
An administrator needs to assign LUN IDs for two new LUNs from the same storage array. The
first LUN is being presented as LUN 0 to multiple hosts. The second LUN is being dedicated to a single server which is also included in the group of hosts LUN 0 is presented to. Which of the following is the LOWEST LUN ID that can be assigned to the second LUN?

A.    0
B.    1
C.    2
D.    16

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
In a direct current only datacenter, which of the following is the MOST important rack installation concern?

A.    Sufficient power capacity
B.    Adequate division of circuits
C.    Adequate humidity control
D.    Grounding of all components

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which of the following are the MOST important properties to remember when replacing a faulty SFP? (Select TWO).

A.    SFP TX power
B.    Distance rating
C.    Port speed
D.    SFP RX power
E.    Driver version

Answer: BC

QUESTION 9
Which of the following is the MOST important item a storage administrator should check FIRST for a successful fabric merge?

A.    Faulty SFPs in the switch
B.    Number of aliases in the zoning database
C.    Domain IDs
D.    Total number of ports in the combined fabric

Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which of the following protocols transmits a password in clear text on the network during the login process?

A.    SFTP
B.    SSH
C.    Telnet
D.    HTTPS

Answer: C

QUESTION 11
A switch with 8Gb ports has been connected with five hosts running at 4Gb speed and two at 2Gb speed. If the switch is communicating through an ISL with another 8Gb switch where the storage array is connected, which of the following will be the oversubscription ratio of this configuration?

A.    1:1
B.    2:1
C.    3:1
D.    5:1

Answer: C

QUESTION 12
An administrator is tasked to programmatically create twenty 64GB LUNs and one 1GB LUN to be assigned to a four node cluster. Which of the following tools should be used to satisfy the request?

A.    CLI
B.    SMI-S
C.    GUI
D.    SNMP

Answer: A

QUESTION 13
A senior administrator configuring a firewall would like to know the IP address of a frequently accessed website to verify that site was not accidentally blocked in the content filter by the junior administrator’s recently-added range of blocked IP addresses. Which of the following tools would be used to find the IP address of the website?

A.    ipconfig/ifconfig
B.    nslookup
C.    netstat
D.    tracert/traceroute

Answer: B

QUESTION 14
A user reports lack of network connectivity on a laptop. No hardware changes have recently occurred on the laptop. Which of the following should the technician check FIRST?

A.    Port
B.    Cable
C.    Firewall
D.    NIC configuration

Answer: B

QUESTION 15
A small business would like to install their new storage equipment in a closet off of their pool deck. Which of the following environmental concerns should a technician consider FIRST?

A.    Fire suppression
B.    Humidity control
C.    Sufficient power
D.    Rack loading

Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which of the following RAID levels provides the BEST guarantee that data will be retained in the event of drive failure without requiring a rebuild?

A.    RAID 0
B.    RAID 1
C.    RAID 3
D.    RAID 5

Answer: B
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QUESTION 1
Which of the following protocols operates at the HIGHEST level of the OSI model?

A.    ICMP
B.    IPSec
C.    SCP
D.    TCP

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which of the following should an administrator implement to research current attack methodologies?

A.    Design reviews
B.    Honeypot
C.    Vulnerability scanner
D.    Code reviews

Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Drag and Drop Question
Task: Determine the types of attacks below by selecting an option from the dropdown list.
 clip_image002
Answer:
 clip_image002[4]

QUESTION 4
Which of the following can be implemented in hardware or software to protect a web server from cross-site scripting attacks?

A.    Intrusion Detection System
B.    Flood Guard Protection
C.    Web Application Firewall
D.    URL Content Filter

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which of the following means of wireless authentication is easily vulnerable to spoofing?

A.    MAC Filtering
B.    WPA – LEAP
C.    WPA – PEAP
D.    Enabled SSID

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Lab Sim – Configure the Firewall
Task: Configure the firewall (fill out the table) to allow these four rules:
– Only allow the Accounting computer to have HTTPS access to the Administrative server.
– Only allow the HR computer to be able to communicate with the Server 2 System over SCP.
– Allow the IT computer to have access to both the Administrative Server 1 and Administrative Server 2
 clip_image002[6]
 clip_image002[8]
Answer:
Use the following answer for this simulation task. Below table has all the answers required for this question.
 clip_image002[10]

QUESTION 7
Jane, a security administrator, needs to implement a secure wireless authentication method that uses a remote RADIUS server for authentication.
Which of the following is an authentication method Jane should use?

A.    WPA2-PSK
B.    WEP-PSK
C.    CCMP
D.    LEAP

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Computer evidence at a crime scene is documented with a tag stating who had possession of the evidence at a given time.
Which of the following does this illustrate?

A.    System image capture
B.    Record time offset
C.    Order of volatility
D.    Chain of custody

Answer: D

QUESTION 9
A network administrator is configuring access control for the sales department which has high employee turnover. Which of the following is BEST suited when assigning user rights to individuals in the sales department?

A.    Time of day restrictions
B.    Group based privileges
C.    User assigned privileges
D.    Domain admin restrictions

Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is being tested when a company’s payroll server is powered off for eight hours?

A.    Succession plan
B.    Business impact document
C.    Continuity of operations plan
D.    Risk assessment plan

Answer: C

QUESTION 11
A security analyst, Ann, is reviewing an IRC channel and notices that a malicious exploit has been created for a frequently used application. She notifies the software vendor and asks them for remediation steps, but is alarmed to find that no patches are available to mitigate this vulnerability.
Which of the following BEST describes this exploit?

A.    Malicious insider threat
B.    Zero-day
C.    Client-side attack
D.    Malicious add-on

Answer: B

QUESTION 12
A security administrator has concerns about new types of media which allow for the mass distribution of personal comments to a select group of people. To mitigate the risks involved with this media, employees should receive training on which of the following?

A.    Peer to Peer
B.    Mobile devices
C.    Social networking
D.    Personally owned devices

Answer: C

QUESTION 13
A network administrator is responsible for securing applications against external attacks. Every month, the underlying operating system is updated. There is no process in place for other software updates.
Which of the following processes could MOST effectively mitigate these risks?

A.    Application hardening
B.    Application change management
C.    Application patch management
D.    Application firewall review

Answer: C

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